Hi everyone,

I'm running an application that sends out email notifications to customers.
It is supposed to be a one-way communication channel but there are lways
inevitable bounces and replies from users. We also get our fair share of
out-of-office messages. Our emails are constructed in such a way that the
Reply-To: and From: headers contain distinct email-addresses in our domain.
This enables us to determine which email we have sent has caused the reply
or bounce.

I've seen a number of out-of-office messages that have been sent to the
address that was set in the From: header. Is this the way an automated reply
is supposed to be handled? Reading RFC2822 does not really clarify this:

"When the "Reply-To:" field is present, it indicates the mailbox(es) to
which the author of the message suggests that replies be sent.  In the
absence of the "Reply-To:" field, replies SHOULD by default be sent to the
mailbox(es) specified in the "From:" field unless otherwise specified by the
person composing the reply."

I would interpret this as: "use the Reply-To: to reply to if present,
otherwise use the From:".

Is my interpretation incorrect?

--
Jeroen

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