<<snip>> "Polanski pleaded guilty to unlawful sexual intercourse as part of a plea agreement and he went to jail for a short time in order to undergo psychiatric evaluation.
When Polanksi realized the judge intended to sentence him to more time behind bars, he fled to France." Then why wasn't Polanski held without bail? How is it that he was "allowed" to flee to France? Heather (who watches WAY too much Law & Order)
