>> Has there been a precedent? If not, by (dictionary) definition, it is
exceptional.
Maybe the precedent is Boston. <<
Boston were given the second relegation because they did not have enough
money to pay their football debts in full.
Bates has consistently said that football debts will be paid in full.
Therefore the Boston situation is totally different to ours and in no way a
precedent.
The FL has stated that every club that has been through administration has
exited via a CVA.
Until our case, where KPMG decided it was in the best interests for the club
- and the creditors - for the business to be sold without a CVA.
Therefore, by definition, we are the exception.
How does that not constitute an exceptional circumstance? Seems pretty clear
to me.
Mark
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