Telemann's eschewing of sequential development was alone sufficient for him
to claim to be an adherent of the French style.
Needless to say- aside from this there was nothing French in Telemann's
thoroughly Germanic musical character. But this would indicate how much of a
determinant that aspect was to an 18th century set of ears.
RT
----- Original Message -----
From: "Roman Turovsky" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: <lute@cs.dartmouth.edu>; "David Rastall" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent: Thursday, June 19, 2008 3:44 PM
Subject: Re: [LUTE] French Style
I would say- mainly the absense of sequential development.
RT
From: "David Rastall" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
I'm wondering: what is it that makes up the "French style" of Baroque
music? I don't mean particularly stile brise, notes inegall etc. Those
are obvious, and to me insufficient explanations to convey the French
Baroque. It seems to me there's more to it than that. David Rastall
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