Of course. In his "Italian" works, such as this.
RT
----- Original Message -----
From: "David Tayler" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: "lute-cs.dartmouth.edu" <lute@cs.dartmouth.edu>
Sent: Thursday, June 19, 2008 4:40 PM
Subject: [LUTE] Re: French Style
Telemann uses sequential development all the time
http://www.vimeo.com/706605
French music uses sequential development as well, though it is used
differently than Vivaldi.
dt
At 01:20 PM 6/19/2008, you wrote:
Telemann's eschewing of sequential development was alone sufficient
for him to claim to be an adherent of the French style.
Needless to say- aside from this there was nothing French in
Telemann's thoroughly Germanic musical character. But this would
indicate how much of a determinant that aspect was to an 18th
century set of ears.
RT
----- Original Message ----- From: "Roman Turovsky"
<[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: <lute@cs.dartmouth.edu>; "David Rastall" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent: Thursday, June 19, 2008 3:44 PM
Subject: Re: [LUTE] French Style
I would say- mainly the absense of sequential development.
RT
From: "David Rastall" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
I'm wondering: what is it that makes up the "French style"
of Baroque music? I don't mean particularly stile brise, notes
inegall etc. Those are obvious, and to me insufficient
explanations to convey the French Baroque. It seems to me
there's more to it than that. David Rastall
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