At 06:30 PM 3/23/2004 +0000, Leofranc Holford-Strevens wrote:
>It is not in the least absurd to suggest that Vergil avoided inflected 
>forms he did not like; why else, in the fourth Georgic, does he never 
>speak of bees in the genitive plural, than because neither apium nor 
>apum sounded right to him? It is not a matter of grammatical difficulty, 
>rather elegance of taste.

Cf. "Cuium pecus" for "Cuius pecus" in Ecl. 3.1: according to Servius,
Virgil used the archaic form for two reasons: because the speaker is a
rustic, and because he wanted to avoid repetition.

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David Wilson-Okamura        http://virgil.org          [EMAIL PROTECTED]
East Carolina University    Virgil reception, discussion, documents, &c
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