Marv:
Thanks for your these remarks.
You rightly put the question right back - "What in your view accounts for 
Western capitalism’s resilience? Why hasn’t it exhausted its historic capacity 
for growth and produced immiseration of such depth and breadth that the masses 
would of necessity have to overthrow the system, as Marx and Engels and every 
successive Marxist generation has predicted?"

This is a large brief, and I can only speculate. So I am not an economist as 
you well know, nor have I pretended to be such. However, I did try to summarise 
what I saw as a fundamental relatively new strand - the split between 
industrial capitalists and finance capitalists, in a book on Trump about 10 
years ago. I think that division, and the exuberant growth of the financial (vs 
industrial) markets since around the Thatcherite-Reagan-Friedman period 
1976-1980s.
That did seem to me a fundamental break. To my eye it seems to have continued 
till now.

The postponement of the most intense 'immiseration' depths of the 
well-resourced countries - that is to say imperialist countries - I think is 
well explained in your own second paragraph about the various reforms.

You also in large measure answer your own next question I think. Namely - "But 
where did the surplus required to support these reforms come from?"

Your answers are surely - to me they seem spot-on - in large measure correct:
"Imperialism? Rapid technological advance in the workplace and in 
transportation, communications, agriculture and other sectors which greatly 
expanded markets and lowered the cost of production? A vast increase in 
military production which played a central role in recovery from the Great 
Depression and still provides essential support to the US economy?"
You have not said intensification of exploitation of the under-developed 
world/ex-colonial world - though you mean it I think under the rubric 
"imperialism".  Export of industrial manufacture to those countries, merely 
exacerbates the contrast of excess good capacity vs the ability of the 
international working class to 'sop' up those products.

In general this dilemma should remind us of the dilemma many in the Left felt 
about defining - "When *did* capital supplant feudalism? In other words the 
whole Dobbs vs Sweezey debates. There are plenty of passages in both Marx and 
Engels, that talk of long interregnums and passages. Yet modern scholars jump 
up and down saying - "Ah but Marx ignored the presence of capitalists in 
ancient Rome etc etc". This is very intently ignoring those passages and the 
major thrust they were making. That is another topic.

So far - we likely, I think - agree.
But doubtless you nor many others, will at all like this next proposition:
The collapse and take-over of the socialist economy of the USSR from 
revisionism and imperialist attack - removed a huge barrier and threat to 
international capital. That collapse happened in 1953 - and not with the Hail 
Mary of Gorbachov's dissolution in 1991. FWIW I think the USSR was the only 
socialist economy to be established. Before I am mis-understood to be arguing 
also that this includes the 'socialist' China - I do not believe that it can be 
shown that China ever established 'socialism'.

Finally - and I apologise for being wordy - Michael your views on climate.
I fully agree this is a huge and epic threat to humanity.
But it is I think, still a part and parcel I think of the general, rapidly 
evolving and gigantic overall crisis. Namely the divide between the capitalist 
class and the toilers of the world. Am I mistaken  - but surely your are not 
somehow saying that it is apart from that?

Be Well, H


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