Date: Wed, 29 Mar 2006 15:08:16 -0500
From: "frank theriault" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: pentax-discuss@pdml.net
>Kant is responsible for Hitler and his ilk? That's what
>you seem to be saying, so correct me if I've
>misinterpreted you.
>
>If that's what you're saying, that's one of the most
>wrong-headed and irresponsible statements I've seen
>in a long time!
>
>cheers,
>frank
It's by inheritence.
Hitler, before coming to power, declared himself a Marxist, but
that the Communists were doing things wrong & something which he
was going to correct.
Hitler was not following Kant directly but implementing what he
understood from Marx. Along with his own megalomania, his basic
socialism (Fascism was Musolini's system, not Hitler's) has its
historical basis in Marx->Hegel->Kant.
Yes, it's two steps away, but still the influence is historically
present.
And if you want leave out Hitler and just go with
Hegel/Marx/Nietzsche, that's certainly enough to indict this
teaching for the fruit it has plainly and significantly produced
through Lenin/Stalin/Khmer Rouge.
Collin
KC8TKA
