On 11/06/2012 2:04 AM, Joseph McAllister wrote:

On Jun 10, 2012, at 21:21 , William Robb wrote:

Seems to me that if the copyright owner isn't able to supply you with a print, 
they have pretty much invalidated any claim they could make for damages.

That's another way to express it. There is no one alive to ask that permission. 
The company or studio that took the photo in 1897 is no longer reachable, 
probably it no longer exists. In my heart I truly believe if I did contact the 
copyright holder and asked for a print, they could not provide one. Few 
companies, and fewer individuals have kept their library of negatives for over 
100 years. If there was a historical value to one or more images stamped with 
the name of the copyright holder, they were bought up or had donated to 
companies or collectors such as the Library of Congress, or such as the 
National Photo Company Collection or the Detroit Publishing Catalog.

More current images should be asked if the copyright holder can be reached in 
some way, yes?

Copyright violation is all about damages. I think our laws differ between our two countries on this. I may be wrong, but it seems to me that damage settlements in your country are sometimes rather capriciously arrived at, whereas in Canada, damage awards are more in line with actual damages. While the actual copying of the work may be illegal, if the copyright owner isn't able to supply copies himself, he really can't claim he is being damaged if someone copies his work. This may not make the copying legal, but it should limit damages collectible, especially if the copying is non commercial, such as distributing a few copies of an image of someone's family taken a hundred or more years ago.

--

William Robb

--
PDML Pentax-Discuss Mail List
PDML@pdml.net
http://pdml.net/mailman/listinfo/pdml_pdml.net
to UNSUBSCRIBE from the PDML, please visit the link directly above and follow 
the directions.

Reply via email to