Gary F - I'll say the same to you - you get full marks for tenacity. Equally, 
your 'GaryF-isms' are not, in my view, correct analyses of Peirce. You are 
locked into the semantics (the trees) and don't see the broader picture (the 
semiosis). 

1) The genuine or  degenerate 'signs'  (again, you refer only to the 
Representamen) is operative in a 'genuine' or 'degenerate' way due to and only 
to the categorical mode of the Relation between the Representamen and the 
Object. You wrote:

GF: So you also reject Peirce’s “view” that “Of signs there are two different 
degenerate forms. … The more degenerate of the two forms (as I look upon it) is 
the icon. … The other form of degenerate sign is to be termed an index. … We 
now come to the genuine sign, for which I propose the technical designation 
symbol” (EP2:306-7)? or that “Of these three genera of representamens, the Icon 
is the Qualitatively degenerate, the Index the Reactionally degenerate, while 
the Symbol is the relatively genuine genus” (EP2:163)? If so, your rejections 
are irrelevant to Peircean semiotic.

EDWINA:  What function do you see in these degenerate/genuine modes? WHY does 
Peirce define the Iconic Relation as 'degenerate'? Well? It's because it is 
operating in a mode of 3-1, with the Representamen in itself in a mode of 
Thirdness, and the Relation between the R-and-Object, in a mode of Firstness, 
ie. Thirdness-as-Firstness. The indexical Relation between the R-and-Object is 
3-2. The symbol relation is in a mode of Thirdness.

2) You seem to privilege only the full or 'genuine' categorical modes, ie. 
Thirdness as Thirdness, Firstness as Firstness, Secondness as Secondness. You 
seem to denigrate the 'mixed' modes, eg, Thirdness as Secondness. But - these 
mixed categorical modes are what enables interaction and  diversity. 

3) And again, I also reject your view that the "Qualisign is degenerate 
relative to the Sinsign and to the Legisign ". 
Why should a Representamen in the categorical mode of Firstness be 
'degenerate'? Or is it that the Legisign 'ought' to be, as the site of laws, in 
the mode of Thirdness, and any weakening of it (by its being in a mode of 
Firstness or Secondness) thereby weakens its rule-making powers. Now -  THAT I 
can accept. But you don't explain this. 

4) Again - how can a 'normal Qualisign' be disembodied? What's your meaning of 
this statement. I think I've asked this three times already.

5) Finally - you maintain that YOUR outline is The Only Correct View of Peirce. 
I, however, disagree with you - but - I don't declare that MY outline is the 
Correct View of Peirce. I am providing my view and my analysis, and consider 
that you are only and merely providing your view and your analysis - not The 
Only Correct View - but simply, your analysis. It ends there.

Edwina
  ----- Original Message ----- 
  From: g...@gnusystems.ca 
  To: 'Peirce-L' 
  Sent: Friday, December 04, 2015 8:46 AM
  Subject: RE: [PEIRCE-L] RE: signs, correlates, and triadic relations


  Edwina, you certainly get full marks for tenacity!

   

  What we need in this thread, though, is closer attention to what Peirce 
actually said.

  In the responses interleaved below, that will be my focus.

   

  Gary f.

   

  From: Edwina Taborsky [mailto:tabor...@primus.ca] 
  Sent: 3-Dec-15 16:13



  ET: Gary F-  I'm aware that Peirce used the term 'sign' to refer to both the 
Representamen and the full triadic semiosic process. As you know, your 
confining the term to mean ONLY the Representamen, is a problem I have, not 
with Peirce, but with your outlines. I doubt that you and I will agree on this.

   

  GF: In this thread I am quoting from NDTR, where Peirce says that “A Sign is 
a representamen” (CP 2.242). Can you provide a quote from NDTR where Peirce 
says that a Sign is a full triadic semiosic process (or a “triad of relations”)?

   

  ET: I don't think that the term 'peculiar' naturally leads to its being 
defined as 'degenerate'.

   

  GF: Neither do I. I’m guessing at what Peirce means by “peculiar” in this 
context, and how this “peculiarity” might be related to degeneracy, precisely 
because Peirce does not mention degeneracy in NDTR, as he does elsewhere.

   

  ET: That's because I understand the terms 'genuine' and 'degenerate' to refer 
only to the modal categories. So, if the Relations between the three parts of 
the triad (Object-Representamen-Interpretant) are operating within the 
degnerate modes of (2-1, 3-1, 3-2) rather than the 'pure modes' (1-1, 2-2, 
3-3)...then, we can see them as 'degenerate relations'.

   

  I do not know what Peirce meant by 'these qualisigns are of a peculiar kind 
and only form a sign through being actually embodied" 2.245.  He might be 
saying that a Sinsign, which functions as a particularity, might have a 
qualitative relation (as well as a direct relation) with its Object in the mode 
of 2-1, or Secondness-as-Firstness. 

   

  GF: OK, that makes sense in the Taborskian idiom. But how that relates to the 
Peircean idiom is considerably less clear than what Peirce means by “peculiar.” 
What follows is yet another elaboration of the Taborskian idiom, with no 
reference to the Peircean text:

   

  ET: Therefore, I reject your view that the "Qualisign is degenerate relative 
to the Sinsign and to the Legisign ".  It's the Relations in their categorical 
modes that are genuine or degenerate; i.e., the modes are genuine/degenerate. 
Not the Signs.

   

  GF: So you also reject Peirce’s “view” that “Of signs there are two different 
degenerate forms. … The more degenerate of the two forms (as I look upon it) is 
the icon. … The other form of degenerate sign is to be termed an index. … We 
now come to the genuine sign, for which I propose the technical designation 
symbol” (EP2:306-7)? or that “Of these three genera of representamens, the Icon 
is the Qualitatively degenerate, the Index the Reactionally degenerate, while 
the Symbol is the relatively genuine genus” (EP2:163)? If so, your rejections 
are irrelevant to Peircean semiotic. 

   

  ET: Qualisigns in themselves do not actually form a Representamen, for a 
Representamen is not a collection of particular relations, but is a 
transformation of these relations into generalities, into laws.  Qualisigns are 
connected to the object by an 'embodiment' process that is descriptive rather 
than denotative. . But, since no qualisign exists 'per se' but functions within 
a relation to its object (which could be also be in a mode of Firstness)  then, 
it could be that the 'peculiar' mode of a qualisign as related to a Sinsign 
(which is in a mode of Secondness) is in a categorical mode of 2-1, or, 
Secondness as Firstness. 

   

  Peirce also, in 2.246, refers to the Legisign, as requiring Sinsigns, but 
again, 'these are not ordinary Sinsigns, such as are peculiar occurrences that 
are regarded as significant'. Same thing. In a Legisign Representamen, the 
Relations between the Representamen and the Object and Interpretant could be in 
a mode of 3-2, or Thirdness operating in Secondness.

   

  GF: Another translation of Peircean idiom into Taborskian, with no basis in 
Peirce’s text. In your previous post, you wrote that “I  consider the Peircean 
Sign to be an integral triad of three Relations: That between the Representamen 
and Object; that of the Representamen in itself; and that between the 
Representamen and the Interpretant. [See 8.344--]”

  Well, I did read, carefully and in its entirety, the December 1908 letter 
from Peirce to Welby which includes CP 8.344, which is also EP2:481-91; and in 
that letter, Peirce says nothing of the kind that you express here. What he 
says, in 8.343, is that “A sign has a triadic relation to its Object and to its 
Interpretant”; and he conducts an inquiry into “the triadic relation of 
Sign-Object-Interpretant (8.361), in terms of ten trichotomies, (rather than 
limiting his analysis to the three trichotomies which define the ten sign types 
in NDTR). But nowhere in that text does he say that the “Sign” is a triad of 
three Relations, and anyone who reads it with care can see that such Taborskian 
language is incompatible with Peirce’s actual usage of the word “sign.” 

   

  Now, I know that you will continue to insist that your reading of Peirce is 
the only correct one, and how futile it is for me (or anyone) to demonstrate 
its inaccuracy. So all I hope to accomplish in a post like this is to urge its 
readers to read Peirce’s actual text closely, rather than your loose 
translation of it into Taborskian idiom. That’s the only hope we have of 
understanding Peircean semiotics. So, I give up trying to answer nonsensical 
questions which do nothing to advance that understanding.

   

  Again - how can a 'normal Qualisign' be disembodied? What's your meaning of 
this statement?

   

  Edwina

   

   

    ----- Original Message ----- 

    From: g...@gnusystems.ca 

    To: 'Peirce-L' 

    Sent: Thursday, December 03, 2015 3:20 PM

    Subject: RE: [PEIRCE-L] RE: signs, correlates, and triadic relations

     

    Edwina, in my study of NDTR, I am using Peirce’s definition of “Sign” 
exactly as given in that work; I quoted it (again) in the post you are 
responding to. If you have a problem with it, you’ll have to take it up with 
Peirce, not with me. As for what you choose to place into your pigeonholes of 
“Saussurean sign”, “Platonism” etc., that has no relevance to NDTR that I can 
see.

     

    Peirce says that a Sinsign “involves a qualisign, or rather, several 
qualisigns. But these qualisigns are of a peculiar kind” — and I suggested an 
explanation of why Peirce calls them “peculiar” (implying of course that there 
is another kind of Qualisign that is not peculiar). My suggestion is prompted 
by Peirce’s statement about the Qualisign that its “embodiment has nothing to 
do with its character as a sign.” You don’t like my suggestion, which is fine, 
but you’ve offered no alternative. Why are the qualisigns involved in sinsigns 
“of a peculiar kind”?

     

    Gary f. 

     

    From: Edwina Taborsky [mailto:tabor...@primus.ca] 
    Sent: 3-Dec-15 14:41



     

    Gary F - I certainly consider all ten classes as genuine Signs. I don't  
think this suggests an ambiguity in the meaning of 'genuine' and 'degenerate' 
but rather, an ambiguity in your definition of the Sign.  

     

    You, as I understand it, confine the meaning of 'Sign' to be a synonym for 
'Representamen.  This leads, I think, to an understanding of the Sign as really 
a Saussurian Sign, with the Signifier=Object; and the Signified=Interpretant. 
Obviously, I reject this dyadism. I  consider the Peircean Sign to be an 
integral triad of three Relations: That between the Representamen and Object; 
that of the Representamen in itself; and that between the Representamen and the 
Interpretant. [See 8.344--]

     

    So, if you consider only the Representamen as the Sign, then, I don't see 
how you can define it, on its own, as genuine or degenerate.  It isn't that the 
Representamen can't act as a sign [Representamen] unless it is embodied; it 
isn't a Representamen UNLESS it is embodied. Otherwise, you are moving into 
Platonism which does accept non-embodied Forms. [And yes, I'm aware of Peirce's 
terms of "it cannot actually act as a sign until it is embodied" 2.244.

     

    I don't see how a Sign (the triad) with all three Relations in a mode of 
Firstness is  degenerate or even 'doubly degenerate'. After all, Firstness as a 
categorical mode, has no nature of degeneracy. 

     

    The genuine and degenerate forms of the Categories, is another issue, 
where, as we know, Peirce considers that Firstness has no degeneracy; 
Secondness has both a genuine and degenerate mode (2-2 and 2-1); and Thirdness 
has both a genuine and two degenerate modes (3-3, 3-2, 3-1). 


    When Peirce refers to a genuine or degenerate index, he is referring to its 
categorical mode of Secondness. That is, the modal categories in themselves are 
genuine or degenerate not the Relation.

     

    I don't see that a Qualisign, which is in a mode of pure Firstness (and not 
3-1) can be degenerate as compared to a Sinsign or Legisign.

     

    How can 'a normal Qualisign' be disembodied? There's no such thing in 
Peirce as a 'free-floating Representamen'.  That's Platonism. 

     

    Edwina

     

     

      ----- Original Message ----- 

      From: g...@gnusystems.ca 

      To: 'Peirce-L' 

      Sent: Thursday, December 03, 2015 11:31 AM

       

      Moving on to the first trichotomy of sign types in “Nomenclature and 
Divisions of Triadic Relations”:

       

      CP 2.244: According to the first division, a Sign may be termed a 
Qualisign, a Sinsign, or a Legisign. 

      A Qualisign is a quality which is a Sign. It cannot actually act as a 
sign until it is embodied; but the embodiment has nothing to do with its 
character as a sign.

      [As a Sign, this “quality” must be a correlate of a triadic relation with 
its Object and Interpretant, “by which triadic relation the possible 
Interpretant is determined to be the First Correlate of the same triadic 
relation to the same Object, and for some possible Interpretant” (CP 2.242). 
Yet it cannot act as a sign until it is embodied, i.e. until it becomes 
involved in at least a dyadic relation, and thus enters the universe of 
existence. Yet its significance is its quality (not its embodiment), and 
qualities being monadic, there is no real difference between Sign and Object 
(or Interpretant either). So I think we might call this a doubly degenerate 
kind of triadic relation, where the Sign is virtually self-representing, and 
self-determining as its own Interpretant. Compare the “self-sufficient” point 
on a map which Peirce offers as an example of doubly degenerate Thirdness in 
his third Harvard Lecture, EP2:162.) Or, since this degeneracy is relative, we 
can say that the Qualisign is degenerate relative to the Sinsign and to the 
Legisign (just as the Icon is degenerate relative to the Index and the genuine 
Symbol, according to Peirce in both the third Harvard lecture of 1903 and “New 
Elements” of 1904).

       

      On the other hand, some semioticians say that all ten of the sign types 
defined in NDTR, including the Qualisign, are genuine Signs. This flags a 
possible ambiguity in the concepts of genuine and degenerate; and possibly this 
problem is related to the concepts of embodiment, just introduced, and of 
involvement, which is introduced in the next paragraph:]

       

      245. A Sinsign (where the syllable sin is taken as meaning “being only 
once,” as in single, simple, Latin semel, etc.) is an actual existent thing or 
event which is a sign. It can only be so through its qualities; so that it 
involves a qualisign, or rather, several qualisigns. But these qualisigns are 
of a peculiar kind and only form a sign through being actually embodied.

      [Evidently it is the involvement of qualisigns in a Sinsign — which, I 
suppose, constitutes their embodiment — that makes them “peculiar,” because a 
“normal” Qualisign is disembodied (and does not act as a Sign). But perhaps 
this will be clarified by the definition of Legisign, which I’ll leave for the 
next post.]

       

      Gary f. 



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