Ben:
 
I don't think you or your position would lose any credibility by letting Jean-Marc have the last word on the matter.   
 
Joe Ransdell
----- Original Message -----
Sent: Wednesday, June 21, 2006 4:14 PM
Subject: [peirce-l] Re: 1st image of triangle of boxes (MS799.2)

Jean-Marc:
 
In reading Joe's response to you, I am reminded that you still haven't taken a stand on the three main trichotomies and their categorial correlations. If you do in fact understand the correlations, you may feel that it destroys your argument to admit that you understand them. But then it comes to the same thing.
 
Then I caught this remark of yours:
 
> Then Marty claimed that some of the trichotomies are redundant. (this is summarized in a mail dated 2006/06/16 sent to peirce-l which you most likely overlooked.) which would not yield to 66 classes of signs but only 28.
 
Far from overlooking it, I responded to it, and am still awaiting Robert's reply. I append it directly below.
 
Best, Ben Udell
 
----- Original Message ----- From: Benjamin Udell To: Peirce Discussion Forum Sent: Friday, June 16, 2006 12:28 PM Subject: [peirce-l] Re: redundancies of trichotomies
 
Robert, list,
 
> Bernard Morand mention in a message my assertion claimed in my book "L'alg¨bre des signes" according to many trichotomies among the 10 trichotomies are redundant.
> Here are my arguments, exposed on the case of the trichotomie number IV concerning "the relation of the sign to the dynamic objet" :
> By the trichotomy number I ( The sign itself, the mode of apprehension of the sign itself" ) we know the categorial membership of the sign ( 1, 2 or 3 ); by the trichotomy number III (the Mode of Being of the dynamical object)...
 
Number III being abstractive/concretive/collective.
 
>... by the trichotomy number III (the Mode of Being of the dynamical object) we know the categorial membership of the dynamic object (1,2 or 3). In view that the dynamical object determine the sign we have the following possibilities :
> If the Mode of apprehension of the sign is 3, the Mode of Being of the Dynamical object is 3 and their relation is categorically determined by the pair (3,3). The sign is a symbol.
> If the Mode of apprehension of the sign is 2, the Mode of Being of the Dynamical object is 3 or 2 and their relation is categorically determined by the pair (3,2) or by the pair (2,2). In both cases the sign is an index. (respectively legisign or sinsign)
 
Trichotomy I, the Mode of apprehension, consists of 1. qualisign, 2. sinsign, and 3. legisign. If the Mode of apprehension is 2, then the sign is a sinsign. So the pair (3,2) is a collective sinsign and the pair (2,2) is a concretive sinsign. Yet you then say that (3,2) and (2,2) are, "respectively, legisign or sinsign." Also, the collective sinsign seems to be excluded by Peirce's "ususal" rules of sign-parametric combination. One of us seems to have gone wrong here. Your discussion is formulated rather abstractly, so I may well be the one who'se gone wrong. But would you clarify this? It seems like you meant to write some permutation of this. E.g.,
 
"If the Mode of Being of the Dynamical Object is 3, the Mode of apprehension of the sign is 3 or 2, and their relation is categorically determined by the pair (3,2) or by the pair (2,2). In both cases the sign is an index (respectively legisign or sinsign)."
 
In that case (3,2) would be a (2) concretive (3) legisign and (2,2) would be a (2) concretive ([CORRECTED] 2) sinsign, and it would be allowed by the rules of sign-parametric combination, and would cohere with saying that the sign is respectively legisign or sinsign. But Peirce's parametric combination rules would seem to allow the concretive sinsign to be iconic rather than indexical. So, if you meant to refer to a concretive legisign and a concretive sinsign, then what rule of combining sign-parametric values are you using and on what basis do you rule out the apparently allowed iconic concretive sinsign? I'm not saying that it shouldn't be ruled out. But that's the step that renders Trichotomy IV redundant. The 10-ad of trichotomies which we're discussing is far from "canonical." But still, what are your ideas these regards? This is of interest to the question of whether you keep the arrangement whereby all symbols are copulant and none of them designative or descriptive.
 
> If the Mode of apprehension of the sign is 1, the Mode of Being of the Dynamical object is 3 or 2 or 1 and their relation is categorically determined by the pair (3,1) or by the pair (2,1)or by the pair (1,1). In the three cases the sign is an icon ( respectively legisign or sinsign or qualisign).
 
I have the analogous question here as I asked above. (You start out saying that the sign is a qualisign, and (3,1) seems to be a collective qualisign, and (2,1) seems to be a concretive qualisign, and (1,1) seems to be an abstractive qualisign. (3,1) & (2,1) seem excluded by the usual rules of sign-parametric combination, and then you say that the sign a qualisign or a sinsign or a legisign. Etc.)
 
Best, Ben Udell
 
> Whatever the case the trichotomie n¨ IV is enterely determined by the trichotomies I and III and consequently the distinction brought forth this trichotomie is not operative and I conclude that is redundant.
> The same argument can be advanced for the trichotomies VII and IX, generally for the trichotomies concerning relations betwen elements of which the nature is otherwise know .
> The case of tne trichotomie number X is different and I admit willingly that I don't see what can be a trichotomy of a triadic relation especially when I represent It by a branching Y. If anyone can give to me an idea on this matter I should be grateful to him...
 
 
----- Original Message -----
From: "Benjamin Udell" To: "Peirce Discussion Forum"  Sent: Friday, June 16, 2006 12:56 PM Subject: [peirce-l] Re: redundancies of trichotomies
 
Robert, list,

I wrote,
"In that case (3,2) would be a (2) concretive (3) legisign and (2,2) would be a (2) concretive (3) sinsign,..."

Things are confusing enough without my typos. I meant,
"In that case (3,2) would be a (2) concretive (3) legisign and (2,2) would be a (2) concretive (2) sinsign,..."

- Best, Ben Udell
----- Original Message -----
From: "Joseph Ransdell" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: "Peirce Discussion Forum" <peirce-l@lyris.ttu.edu>
Sent: Wednesday, June 21, 2006 4:39 PM
Subject: [peirce-l] Re: 1st image of triangle of boxes (MS799.2)

Jean-Marc:

What you say below suggests a chaos in Peirce's work and in the scholarship about it which does not exist, as regards this matter in question.   I have said several times here and once quite recently that all talk about Peirce's work on the trichotomies past the three presented in the Syllabus of Logic of 1903 where the stuff about the ten sign classes first appears  is about material in Peirce's notebooks which is very much of the nature of work in process that never reached even a provisionally satisfactory status in Peirce's own estimation.  It cannot be talked about as if it is on par, as representing Peirce's view, with the material in the Syllabus where the first three trichotomies are developed systematically and were in fact made publicly available by Peirce.. So far as I know, no one who is aware of this in virtue either of studying the MS material themselves or hearing about how problematic it is from me or someone else disagrees with that, so far as I know.  Ben's comments about the three trichotomy set which Peirce himself made publicly available are quite reasonable as a way of contrasting the present status of that with the unsettled status of the material in his notebooks.   I am less concerned with defending Ben, though, than I am with there not being a misunderstanding about the present scholarly situation. There is no assumption, of course, that any settlement of opinion on any of this is definitive or absolute. .

Joe Ransdell

----- Original Message -----
From: "Jean-Marc Orliaguet" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: "Peirce Discussion Forum" <peirce-l@lyris.ttu.edu>
Sent: Wednesday, June 21, 2006 12:48 PM
Subject: [peirce-l] Re: 1st image of triangle of boxes (MS799.2)

Benjamin Udell wrote:
> Jean-Marc, list,
>
> I don't even agree in the end with Peirce's classification but it's pretty obvious that whether one partially or totally orders the 10 classes  depends on the criteria. And it's pretty obvious that the trichotomies are  ordered (or orderable) in a Peircean categorial way, specifically: the 1st trichotomy pertains to the sign's own category, the 2nd to the category in which the sign refers to its object, and the 3rd to the category in which the sign entails its interpretant. If one incorporates this ordering of the trichotomies into the ordering of  the classes, then one ends with a complete ordering of the classes. One can also so prioritize as to arrive simply at the partially ordered lattice. This is at least partly a matter of whether one prioritizes the Peircean category of the trichotomy (the ordinality of the "parameter") or the Peircean category of the term IN the trichotomy (the ordinality of the "parametric value"). How does one decide? Well, one looks at it both ways, both ways have their illuminative aspects, so one ends up finally not choosing one way dispensing permanently with the other way. So there seems to be some optionality in how one orders these things. Jean-Marc, however, seems to believe that the ordering question is quite determinate, and leads inevitably to the partial ordering. He does this by dismissing without analyzing the certainly very categorial appearance of the ordering of the trichotomies. Certainly Peirce was quite conscious of this categorial structure of the trichotomies, since his 10-ad of trichotomies is obviously an attempt to extend that structure.
>
> Where most Peirceans seem to regard this matter as settled and fairly simple, Jean-Marc differs, which is his right.  But I don't see in any of this thread where Jean-Marc addresses what certainly appears to be a Peircean categorial orderability of the trichotomies. Instead he has merely asserted that they are like categories of male/female and old/young, and he has not actually pursued a comparison of his example with the Peircean trichotomies in order to argue for his counter-intuitive assertion. So I think that we're still awaiting an argument. If this argument is supposed to be in Robert Marty's book, then perhaps Jean-Marc can summarize it. If Jean-Marc is unprepared to do that, perhaps Robert can do it.
>
> Best, Ben Udell

Which "Peirceans" are you thinking of? I'll tell you about the Peirceans, concerning the ordering of the trichotomies.

First Peirce, among the Peirceans, gives over the years five different orderings of the trichotomies. Beginning with the triad (S, S-Od, S-If), then continuing  with the 6 trichotomies (1904 and 1908) in different orders and the finally with the ten trichotomies (letter to  Lady Welby 1908 and 8-344) yet again in different orders - This is summarized on page 231 of Marty's book.

None of the orderings are the same, by the way. This is for Peirce's account.

Then two other authors Lieb (1977) and Kawama (1976)  listed in the same table propose a different ordering of the 10 trichotomies. Marty also mentions on the same page that Jappy proposed a non-linear ordering of the trichotomies.

Then Marty claimed that some of the trichotomies are redundant. (this is summarized in a mail dated 2006/06/16 sent to peirce-l which you most likely overlooked.) which would not yield to 66 classes of signs but only 28.

Bernard Morand however claims that there is no redundancy and that each trichotomy is independent.

is this what you call "settled and fairly simple"? I think you have a very simplified understanding of these issues.

Best
/JM
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