Frances and list:

The passage Jim found runs as follows:

"It is usually admitted that there are two classes of mental representation, 
Immediate Representations or Sensations and Mediate Representations or 
Conceptions."

In the context in which that occurs, Peirce goes on to say:

"The former are completely determinate or individual objects of thought; the 
latter are partially indeterminate or general objects."

And he  then goes on (in the next paragraph) to say :

"But according to my theory of logic, since no pure sensations or individual 
objects exist . . . ."

I omit the rest of the long and complex sentence since it adds nothing to 
the point at issue, which is that he does not himself accept the "usually 
admitted" theory, which he contrasts as based on a different metaphysics 
than his.  I cannot myself think of any reason why he would want to use such 
a term.  The word "icon" is after all his term for a representing entity 
which presents its object immediately in the sense that no distinction can 
be drawn between the iconic sign and that of which it is an icon: they are 
numerically identical..  (There is still a formal distinction to be drawn 
between icon and object, in the sense that there is a difference between 
representing and being represented, but this does not entail that what 
represents and what is represented cannot be the same thing.  Otherwise 
there would be no such thing as self-representation.   But of course there 
is.)  So of what use would there be for the term "immediate representation", 
where that is equivalent to "immediate sign" or "immediate representamen"? 
It would only introduce an awkward expression of no distinctive use in his 
theoretical work with the negative potentiality of throwing it into 
confusion.

That is why I am questioning your trying to do this.  I don't understand 
what theoretical use it could have.

Joe Ransdell









----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Frances Kelly" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: "Peirce Discussion Forum" <peirce-l@lyris.ttu.edu>
Sent: Saturday, June 24, 2006 2:07 PM
Subject: [peirce-l] Re: 1st image of triangle of boxes (MS799.2)


Frances to Joe and Jim and others...

No sources could be found by me in Peirce or on Peirce for the terms
"immediate representamen" and "immediate sign" but my search
continues. The terms "Immediate Representations" and "Mediate
Representations" found in Peirce however do raise the further issue of
some differences that Peirce might have held between representation
and representamen, as well as some differences that he might also have
held between representamen and sign.


Joe queried...
Where does Peirce talk about "immediate representamen" or "immediate
sign"?  I can't think of any use he would have for such a term.

Jim answered...
"It is usually admitted that there are two classes of mental
representation, Immediate Representations or Sensations and Mediate
Representations or Conceptions."
- from Essential Peirce, Volume 1, page 106



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