On 5/23/2011 3:33 AM, Jeroen Geilman wrote:
On 05/23/2011 03:35 AM, Jeffs wrote:
Hello All,
Assume the following setup:
Client from xyz.com logins to Many_Companies.com, accesses their
email campaign software running on Many_Companies.com and sends out
newsletters.
A short time later a client from def.com logins to
Many_Companies.com, accesses their email campaign software running on
Many_Companies.com and sends out newsletters.
They both access the same software just have user accounts that are
different on the same server.
Postfix uses sender_dependent_relayhost_maps to channel xyz.com
messages to interface eth0:1 and def.com messages to the the eth0:2
interface.
Those virtual interfaces are mapped to IP addresses that are
registered addresses for xyc.com and def.com respectively.
Here is the question:
Will the received from headers in those messages reflect an
origination IP address of Many_Companies.com's IP address or xyc.com
and def.com IP addresses respectively?
I need the setup to reflect origination emails only coming from the
respective IP addresses for xyz.com and def.com, NOT
Many_Companies.com's IP address.
If this functionality is running on a box that has an IP that belongs
to many-conmpanies.com, then that IP will be reflected in the message
exchange, possibly multiple times, yes.
Since SMTP is an IP protocol, it's hard to see how it could be otherwise.
Thank you.
thank you for the message.
Then how does one setup Postfix so that the first, originating IP is
indicated as, per example above, xyz.com or def.com and not
many-companies.com? I know this is done on mail systems but it eludes
me as to how. Would setting up virtual domains be the answer? I find
it unreasonable to expect that each domain has it's own dedicated IP
address which would translate into many physical servers for each
domain. These days everyone is using virtual domains and ip aliasing.
that's all I want to accomplish but fail to see how this can be done.
Thank you.
