On 2008-06-14, John Salerno <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> John Salerno wrote:
>> if the program I write actually works and allows the two
>> computers to speak to each other, will that be a result purely of the
>> program, or will it have anything to do with the fact that they are
>> already on a home network together?
>
> Here are the two programs. Server first, then client. They work, which
> in itself amazes me that it's so simple to create a network connection
> like this! But my basic question is this: would this connection work if
> the two computers (each running one of these scripts) were completely
> unrelated to one another?
That depends on your definition of "unrelated."
> My two are on a home network, but if I were to run the server
> program and have a friend of mine (who lives somewhere else)
> run the client program, would it still work?
Yes, if the routers/firewalls/PCs were set up properly and if
you changed the IP addresses in the programs appropriately.
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