On Oct 19, 2008, at 4:38 PM, John Cowan wrote: > That would, however, undermine the otherwise reliable deduction that > when applied to the same arguments, < and => (and likewise > and <=) > produce results of opposite truth value. The same is true of > applying < > or <= to the reversal of the arguments of > and >= respectively.
No, because there is no such "reliable deduction" to begin with. (< x y) does not necessarily produce the same result as (not (>= x y)) Do you need an example? Aziz,,, _______________________________________________ r6rs-discuss mailing list [email protected] http://lists.r6rs.org/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/r6rs-discuss
