Yes, of course.  But in that case -- and in light of the fact that the 
*judgment* is not binding on future litigants, or on future courts -- what is 
it, exactly, that makes a holding, or opinion, "binding" on district courts and 
future panels, in the first place?


> 
> The quick answer that comes to mind: Because courts have no authority to 
> issue "holdings" apart from "judgments" in the first place.  That is, 
> federal courts can't issue advisory opinions apart from a genuine case or 
> controversy under Article III.
> 
> 
> 
> >From: "Marty Lederman" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
> >Reply-To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics 
> ><religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu>
> >To: "Law & Religion issues for Law Academics" <religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu>
> >Subject: Re: New Pledge of Allegiance Case,and precential effect of Ninth 
> >Cir cuit's earlier Newdow decision
> >Date: Wed, 14 Sep 2005 20:43:34 -0400
> >
> >Why is it inconsistent?  Assume a court of appeals that, after briefing and 
> >argument, carefully considers the merits question in case A and holds X.  
> >The judgment in case A is not binding on lower courts and future panels 
> >dealing with different parties.  Nor does the judgment have res judicata 
> >effect in such future cases.  The holding X, however, is deemed "binding" 
> >in future cases, precisely because the first panel came to conclusion X 
> >after full briefing, argument and consideration (assuming, of course, that 
> >the holding was not contradicted (reversed) by the court sitting en banc or 
> >by a higher court).
> >
> >Now let's say a higher court subsequently determines that the court of 
> >appeals should never have considered case A (or the "merits" questions) at 
> >all -- either becauise the plaintiff didn't have standing, or because the 
> >court didn't have jurisdiction, or because the case wasn't ripe, etc.  The 
> >effect of this reversal, or vacatur, might be that the judgment no longer 
> >has any operative effect.  But why should the precedential effect of the 
> >holding change?  After all, it was the court's reasoning -- not its 
> >judgment -- that "bound" lower courts, and other panels, in future cases.
> >
> >
> >   ----- Original Message -----
> >   From: A.E. Brownstein
> >   To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
> >   Sent: Wednesday, September 14, 2005 7:50 PM
> >   Subject: Re: New Pledge of Allegiance Case, and precential effect of 
> >Ninth Cir cuit's earlier Newdow decision
> >
> >
> >   The District Court opinion did not identify a Ninth Circuit rule of 
> >precedent on this issue and seemed to be discussing the question as a 
> >matter of general law. I don't know whether the kind of rule Marty 
> >describes exists here.
> >
> >   I think Justice Steven's opinion in Newdow reads very much like the 
> >Court does not think the resolution of this case by the Ninth Circuit on 
> >the merits was appropriate. Stevens writes, ""In our view, it is improper 
> >for the federal courts to entertain a claim by a plaintiff  whose standing 
> >to sue is founded on family law . . . . When hard questions of domestic 
> >relations are sure to affect the outcome, the prudent course is for the 
> >federal court to stay its hand rather than to reach out to resolve a 
> >weighty question of federal constitutional law."
> >
> >   That language seems to me to be inconsistent with the idea that the 
> >Ninth Circuit's decision should still be considered binding law in the 
> >Circuit.
> >
> >   Alan Brownstein
> >
> >
> >
> >
> >   At 07:12 PM 9/14/2005 -0400, you wrote:
> >
> >     Severl folks in this thread are writing as if there is some inherent, 
> >or consistent, "right" answer to the question of whether the CTA9 merits 
> >decision in Newdow is "binding" on district courts "within" that circuit -- 
> >or, presumably, on future Ninth Circuit panels -- and whether it makes a 
> >difference that the panel decision was "reversed" (on prudential standing 
> >grounds), rather than "vacated."
> >
> >     But if I'm not mistaken, whether the prior decision is "binding" in a 
> >future case -- two different questions, really:  whether a "lower" court in 
> >some sense "must" follow it, and whether it triggers the rules of stare 
> >decisis for future panels of the same appellate court -- is solely a 
> >function of whatever rules of precedent the Court of Appeals chooses to 
> >implement.  These would be analogous to the "rules" the U.S. Supreme Court 
> >has developed to govern (i) when lower courts must follow various 
> >dispositions of the SCOTUS (holdings declared in majority or plurality 
> >opinions; affirmances by an equally divided Court; cert. denials; etc.) and 
> >(ii) when the SCOTUS itself should apply stare decisis.  (I'm putting aside 
> >here the question whether "higher" courts in fact have the constitutional 
> >power to insist that "lower" federal courts follow their precedents at all 
> >-- the famous counterexample is the district court's (ultimately 
> >vindicated) refusal to follow Gobitis.  There are those who have argued 
> >that the basic Agostini/Rodriguez de Quijas rule -- that lower courts 
> >cannot anticipate the SCOTUS's overruling of "governing" precedent -- is 
> >illegitimate -- but I'm assuming here that it's not.)
> >
> >     I don't know what the Ninth Circuit's rules are in this respect -- but 
> >frankly, I don't see any good reason to treat a prior merits opinion that 
> >has been "reversed" on prudential standing grounds any differently for 
> >purposes of "binding" precedent than if the same opinion had not been 
> >appealed (or cert. had been denied).  Are Alan and David "unconvinced" that 
> >the Court of Appeals has such a rule (which may well be so -- I don't 
> >know), or is it their view that the CTA9 cannot have such a rule?
> >
> >     Having said all that, I do agree that the question the district court 
> >ought to ask is whether, under CTA9 rules, it is "bound" by a circuit-wide 
> >rule of precedent.  If it's not bound, then the court's job is not to 
> >"predict" what the next CTA9 panel would do, but is instead to attempt to 
> >discern how the case should be decided based on the precedents -- of the 
> >SCOTUS and the CTA9 -- that are "binding."
> >
> >
> >     ----- Original Message -----
> >     From: "David Cruz" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
> >     To: "Law & Religion issues for Law Academics" 
> ><religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu>
> >     Sent: Wednesday, September 14, 2005 4:46 PM
> >     Subject: Re: New Pledge of Allegiance Case, and precential effect of 
> >Ninth Cir cuit's earlier Newdow decision
> >
> >     >
> >     > I too am unconvinced.  If the Court reverses a lower court, it says 
> >it was
> >     > wrong for the lower court to have reached the merits.  Treating a 
> >decision
> >     > that wrongly reached the merits as BINDING seems fishy, at best.  
> >Guess
> >     > I'll have to look up the lower court law on prudential reversals.
> >     >
> >     > David B. Cruz
> >     > Professor of Law
> >     > University of Southern California Law School
> >     > Los Angeles, CA 90089-0071
> >     > U.S.A.
> >     >
> >     > On Wed, 14 Sep 2005, A.E. Brownstein wrote:
> >     >
> >     >> The story is correct. The Supreme Court did not vacate the Ninth 
> >Circuit's
> >     >> decision in Newdow. It reversed it. The District Judge in the new 
> >case
> >     >> argues that a reversal on prudential standing grounds does not 
> >disturb the
> >     >> merits of the Ninth Circuit decision as precedent. "In sum, because 
> >a court
> >     >> may reach the merits despite a lack of prudential standing, it 
> >follows that
> >     >> where an opinion is reversed on prudential standing grounds, the 
> >remaining
> >     >> portion of the circuit court's decision binds the district courts 
> >below."
> >     >>
> >     >> I am unconvinced.
> >     >>
> >     >> Alan Brownstein
> >     >> UC Davis
> >     >
> >     > _______________________________________________
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