... thanks for that. It's an interesting distinction.

Sent from my iPad

> On Feb 15, 2015, at 8:26 PM, Graber, Mark <mgra...@law.umaryland.edu> wrote:
> 
> Dear All:
> 
> This goes back in time a bit, but I have had a busy weekend and wanted to 
> respond to those who wondered why I think the racist prostitute should be 
> subject to anti-discrimination laws.
> 
> One feature of several rights is that we do not allow people to commodify 
> them, or at least commodify them in certain ways.  So while people have the 
> right to vote, and may choose when exercising the right to vote may vote only 
> for persons of color (or white persons), we do not allow persons to sell 
> their right to vote.  We think the reason people ought to have a right to 
> vote is justified by the same principle that supports forbidding the right to 
> sell the vote.
> 
> Consider sex.  One reason we think persons have a right to certain sexual 
> relationships is that we think government should not ban intimate 
> relationships.  One reason many people think prostitution should be banned is 
> that intimacy is not the sort of good that should be bought and sold.  But 
> now imagine we live in a world in which people have no problem commodifying 
> sex.  The best reason for thinking this is that they do not regard commercial 
> sex as intimate behavior.  They regard sex as more akin to back rubs, and or 
> ice cream, but of which are subject to anti-discrimination rights.  But if 
> people do not think commercial sex is intimate behavior than the main reason 
> why we allow discrimination has been rejected.
> 
> In short, my claim is that if sex is just business, then sex is not intimate, 
> and only intimate relationships and actions should enjoy immunity for 
> anti-discrimination rules.
> 
> MAG
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