Re: [ai-geostats] Re: F and T-test for samples drawn from the same p

2004-12-07 Thread Chaosheng Zhang
Dear Isobel,

Thanks for the information. Perhaps I didn't explain my request clearly.
What I need is to verify the ideas you suggested in the previous message.
Specifically, (1) Has anybody used the sill values (in geostatistics) to
replace the variances (in classical statistics) in F test? (2) Has anybody
used the global standard errors (in geostatistics) to replace the mean
standard errors (in classical statistics) in t-test?

Cheers,

Chaosheng


- Original Message - 
From: Isobel Clark [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: Chaosheng Zhang [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Cc: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Monday, December 06, 2004 6:03 PM
Subject: [ai-geostats] Re: F and T-test for samples drawn from the same p


 There ws a pretty good paper on global standard errors
 in the 1984 APCOM proceedings, so I am sure it should
 be in the major textbooks by now.

 Commparing the sills is very straightforward, I think.

 Isobel
 http://geecosse.bizland.com/books.htm

  --- Chaosheng Zhang [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 wrote:
  Isobel,
 
  Good idea, and that's a step forward. Any references
  or is it still an idea?
 
  Cheers,
 
  Chaosheng
 
  - Original Message - 
  From: Isobel Clark [EMAIL PROTECTED]
  To: AI Geostats mailing list [EMAIL PROTECTED]
  Sent: Monday, December 06, 2004 1:07 PM
  Subject: Re: [ai-geostats] F and T-test for samples
  drawn from the same p
 
 
   Dear all
  
   I am having difficulty understanding why none of
  you
   want to try a spatial approach to statistics.
  Everyone
   is trying to make the 'independent' statistical
  tests
   work on spatial data. Try turning this around and
  look
   at the spatial aspect first.
  
   (1) Testing variances: the sill on the
  semi-variogram
   (total height of model) is theoretically a good
   estimate for the sample variance when
  auto-correlation
   or spatial dependence is present. Do your F test
  on
   that. Yes, you still have degrees of freedom
  problems,
   but with thousands of samples the 'infinity
  column'
   should be sufficient.
  
   (2) Testing means: the classic t-test in the
  presence
   of 'equal variances' requires the 'standard error'
  of
   each mean. For independent samples, this is
  s/sqrt(n).
   For spatially dependent samples, this is the
  kriging
   standard error for the global mean. Your only
  problem
   then is getting a global standard error.
  
   Isobel
   http://geoecosse.bizland.com/whatsnew.htm
  
  
 
 
 
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Re: [ai-geostats] Re: F and T-test for samples drawn from the same p

2004-12-07 Thread Isobel Clark
Digby

I see where you are coming from on this, but in fact
the sill is composed of those pairs of samples which
are independent of one another - or, at least, have
reached some background correlation. This is why the
sill makes a better estimate of the variance than the
conventional statistical measures, since it is based
on independent sampling.

Isobel
http://geoecosse.bizland.com/whatsnew.htm


 --- Digby Millikan [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote: 
 While your talking about sill's being the global
 variance which I read 
 everywhere,
 isn't the global variance actually slightly less
 than the sill, as the 
 values below the
 range of the variogram are not included? i.e. the
 sill would be the global 
 variance
 when you have pure nugget effect.
 
 
 
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Re: [ai-geostats] Re: F and T-test for samples drawn from the same p

2004-12-07 Thread Meng-Ying Li
Hi Isobel,

Could you explain why it would be a better estimate of the variance when
independance is considered? I'd rather think that we consider the
dependance when the overall variance are to be estimated-- if there
actually is dependance between values.

Or are you talking about modeling sill value by the stablizing tail on
the experimental variogram, instead of modeling by the calculated overall
variance?

Or, are we talking about variance of different definitions? I'd be
concerned if I missed some point of the original definition for variances,
like, the variance should be defined with no dependance beween values or
something like that. Frankly, I don't think I took the definition of
variance too serious when I was learning stats.


Meng-ying

 Digby

 I see where you are coming from on this, but in fact
 the sill is composed of those pairs of samples which
 are independent of one another - or, at least, have
 reached some background correlation. This is why the
 sill makes a better estimate of the variance than the
 conventional statistical measures, since it is based
 on independent sampling.

 Isobel

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[ai-geostats] Sill versus least-squares classical variance estimate

2004-12-07 Thread Isobel Clark
Meng-Ying

We are talking about estimating the variance of a set
of samples where spatial dependence exists. 

The classical statistical unbiassed estimator of the
population variance is s-squared which is the sum of
the squared deviations from the mean divided by the
relevant degrees of freedom. If the samples are not
inter-correlated, the relevant degrees of freedom are
(n-1). This gives the formula you find in any
introductory statistics book or course.

If samples are not independent of one another, the
degrees of freedom issue becomes a problem and the
classical estimator will be biassed (generally too
small on average). 

In theory, pairs of samples beyond the range of
influence on a semi-variogram graph are independent of
one another. In theory, the variance of the difference
betwen two values which are uncorrelated is twice the
variance of one sample around the population mean.
This is thought to be why Matheron defined the
semi-variogram (one-half the squared difference) so
that the final sill would be (theoretically) equal to
the population variance.

There are computer software packages which will draw a
line on your experimental semi-variogram at the height
equivalent to the classically calculated sample
variance. Some people try to force their
semi-variogram models to go through this line. This is
dumb as the experimental sill is a better estimate
because it does have the degrees of freedom it is
supposed to have.

I am not sure whether this is clear enough. If you
email me off the list, I can recommend publications
which might help you out.

Isobel
http://geoecosse.bizland.com/books.htm

 --- Meng-Ying  Li [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote: 
 Hi Isobel,
 
 Could you explain why it would be a better estimate
 of the variance when
 independance is considered? I'd rather think that we
 consider the
 dependance when the overall variance are to be
 estimated-- if there
 actually is dependance between values.
 
 Or are you talking about modeling sill value by the
 stablizing tail on
 the experimental variogram, instead of modeling by
 the calculated overall
 variance?
 
 Or, are we talking about variance of different
 definitions? I'd be
 concerned if I missed some point of the original
 definition for variances,
 like, the variance should be defined with no
 dependance beween values or
 something like that. Frankly, I don't think I took
 the definition of
 variance too serious when I was learning stats.
 
 
 Meng-ying
 
  Digby
 
  I see where you are coming from on this, but in
 fact
  the sill is composed of those pairs of samples
 which
  are independent of one another - or, at least,
 have
  reached some background correlation. This is why
 the
  sill makes a better estimate of the variance than
 the
  conventional statistical measures, since it is
 based
  on independent sampling.
 
  Isobel
  

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[ai-geostats] Continuing discussion on F and t tests

2004-12-07 Thread Donald E. Myers
The sample variance (assuming that you use the n-1 divisor) is an 
unbiased estimator of the population variance provided you use random 
sampling. Note the ing on the word sampling,  it is not quite correct 
to talk about random samples or independent samples. or at least it 
may be mis-leading. Random sampling pertains to how the data is 
collected, not the end result.

Note moreover that one can always compute a sample variance for a given 
data set but this does not show that the random variable or random 
function has a finite variance.

The sample variance (even when sampling from a normal population) is 
relatively speaking more variable as an estimator of the variance than 
the sample mean is as an estimator of the population mean.  The sampling 
distribution in this restricted case is chi-square, the chi-square 
distribution has a fat tail (as contrasted with a normal distribution).

If correctly (or maybe you would want to say adequately ) estimated, 
the sill of a second order stationary random function would be the 
variance of the random function. In general, the sample variance will 
not estimate the sill (because you are not using random sampling).

Donald Myers
http://www.u.arizona.edu/~donaldm
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[ai-geostats] equivalence of mean and var

2004-12-07 Thread George R Cutter
It was previously mentioned that a common approach is to subdivide populations
into those of equal mean and variance so that stationarity is obeyed.

What do you suggest as tests for determining equivalence of mean and variance
prior to spatial analysis?

Thanks,
Randy.



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[ai-geostats] Re: Sill versus least-squares classical variance estimate

2004-12-07 Thread Meng-Ying Li
I understand why it is not appropriate to force the sill so it matches the
sample variance. My question is, why estimate the overall variance by the
sill value when data are actually correlated?


Meng-ying

On Tue, 7 Dec 2004, Isobel Clark wrote:

 Meng-Ying

 We are talking about estimating the variance of a set
 of samples where spatial dependence exists.

 The classical statistical unbiassed estimator of the
 population variance is s-squared which is the sum of
 the squared deviations from the mean divided by the
 relevant degrees of freedom. If the samples are not
 inter-correlated, the relevant degrees of freedom are
 (n-1). This gives the formula you find in any
 introductory statistics book or course.

 If samples are not independent of one another, the
 degrees of freedom issue becomes a problem and the
 classical estimator will be biassed (generally too
 small on average).

 In theory, pairs of samples beyond the range of
 influence on a semi-variogram graph are independent of
 one another. In theory, the variance of the difference
 betwen two values which are uncorrelated is twice the
 variance of one sample around the population mean.
 This is thought to be why Matheron defined the
 semi-variogram (one-half the squared difference) so
 that the final sill would be (theoretically) equal to
 the population variance.

 There are computer software packages which will draw a
 line on your experimental semi-variogram at the height
 equivalent to the classically calculated sample
 variance. Some people try to force their
 semi-variogram models to go through this line. This is
 dumb as the experimental sill is a better estimate
 because it does have the degrees of freedom it is
 supposed to have.

 I am not sure whether this is clear enough. If you
 email me off the list, I can recommend publications
 which might help you out.

 Isobel
 http://geoecosse.bizland.com/books.htm

  --- Meng-Ying  Li [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
  Hi Isobel,
 
  Could you explain why it would be a better estimate
  of the variance when
  independance is considered? I'd rather think that we
  consider the
  dependance when the overall variance are to be
  estimated-- if there
  actually is dependance between values.
 
  Or are you talking about modeling sill value by the
  stablizing tail on
  the experimental variogram, instead of modeling by
  the calculated overall
  variance?
 
  Or, are we talking about variance of different
  definitions? I'd be
  concerned if I missed some point of the original
  definition for variances,
  like, the variance should be defined with no
  dependance beween values or
  something like that. Frankly, I don't think I took
  the definition of
  variance too serious when I was learning stats.
 
 
  Meng-ying
 
   Digby
  
   I see where you are coming from on this, but in
  fact
   the sill is composed of those pairs of samples
  which
   are independent of one another - or, at least,
  have
   reached some background correlation. This is why
  the
   sill makes a better estimate of the variance than
  the
   conventional statistical measures, since it is
  based
   on independent sampling.
  
   Isobel
 


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RE: [ai-geostats] Continuing discussion on F and t tests

2004-12-07 Thread Colin Daly
Title: RE: [ai-geostats] Continuing discussion on F and t tests







I'd agree with Don's point about the sample variance being unbaised under random sampling. Because of the linearity of the estimate, the lack of independence of samples is not a problem here. This should not be confused with the problem of t tests. There the source of the problem is that the variance of the sample mean, var(1/n sum(Z(x_i)) takes the form
 sigma**2/n + (1/n**2)sum(C_ij) ( sum over all i,j: i not equal to j)
If the covariance terms for i not equal to j are all zero, then the variance of error reduces to sigma**2/n and this is where the number of independent samples n comes into it. If the samples are not independent, then the second term of the above does not necessarily fall away to zero quickly (in particular, in an extreme case, if the covariance falls very slowly we may have C_ij approx equal to sigma**2 and so the total above acts like sigma**2/n + (n-1/n)*sigma**2 = sigma**2. In other words the error does not reduce at all with an increasing number of samples - let alone reduce like 1/n).

So, for this t test business, a crude method of getting a number of 'independent' samples would be to take the lenght of the field divided by range (provided that we have enough sample data to cover the field at a sampling spacing less than the range). This could be used in place of the raw number of samples n - which as said before will give a very poor result.

Colin Daly


-Original Message-
From: Donald E. Myers [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
Sent: Tue 12/7/2004 6:52 PM
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Cc:
Subject: [ai-geostats] Continuing discussion on F and t tests
The sample variance (assuming that you use the n-1 divisor) is an
unbiased estimator of the population variance provided you use random
sampling. Note the ing on the word sampling, it is not quite correct
to talk about random samples or independent samples. or at least it
may be mis-leading. Random sampling pertains to how the data is
collected, not the end result.

Note moreover that one can always compute a sample variance for a given
data set but this does not show that the random variable or random
function has a finite variance.

The sample variance (even when sampling from a normal population) is
relatively speaking more variable as an estimator of the variance than
the sample mean is as an estimator of the population mean. The sampling
distribution in this restricted case is chi-square, the chi-square
distribution has a fat tail (as contrasted with a normal distribution).

If correctly (or maybe you would want to say adequately ) estimated,
the sill of a second order stationary random function would be the
variance of the random function. In general, the sample variance will
not estimate the sill (because you are not using random sampling).

Donald Myers
http://www.u.arizona.edu/~donaldm







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Re: [ai-geostats] Continuing discussion on F and t tests

2004-12-07 Thread Meng-Ying Li
Thanks Donald,

I think what you mean by adequately is the sampling with CSR (complete
spatial randomness) -- please correct me if I'm wrong. But I still have
problem about estimating the variance. I mean, even if we sample with
CSR, wouldn't the sample variance still be smaller than the sill value?
I'd think that unless we restrict our sampling location far enough
from each other, the sample variance calculated by S^2 will not reach
the sill value. . .


Meng-ying

 If correctly (or maybe you would want to say adequately ) estimated,
 the sill of a second order stationary random function would be the
 variance of the random function. In general, the sample variance will
 not estimate the sill (because you are not using random sampling).

 Donald Myers
 http://www.u.arizona.edu/~donaldm



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RE: [ai-geostats] variogram analysis

2004-12-07 Thread Noemi Barabas
Rajive,

Cyclic variograms indicate that your attribute of interest also fluctuates.
I encountered this when working with time-series of water levels, in which
case the fluctuations were related to seasonality.  I am not sure what it
would mean in the case of platinum deposits.  Such variograms can be modeled
using the hole effect model, but 2-dimensional semivraiogram modeling when
you have anisotropy to account for, can be tricky with a hole effect because
you cannot apply a hole effect model in more than one direction.  It may be
better to work with a residual, i.e. to find a correlated cyclic variable,
remove the cyclicity for semivariogram and kriging purposes and add the
kriged residual back in at the end.  If you do want to model such a
variogram, e.g. if you only encounter the cyclicity in one direction, and
you are working with GSLib, then you may have to modify the kriging code, as
the dampening factor (if the cyclicity diminishes with lag)is not specified
in the parameter file.  I don't know what other programs allow you to do
with the hole effect model, though ...

Noémi



-Original Message-
From: Rajive Ganguli [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Tuesday, December 07, 2004 4:50 PM
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Subject: [ai-geostats] variogram analysis


My question is general.  What do you conclude if your variogram is
wavy? Cyclic patterns?  I have what appears to be high nugget,
followed by a wavy pattern.

If you wish, here is more info: an offshore placer platinum deposit,
not too many boreholes - just 29 from decades ago spanning several
square kilometers.  The variogram (from GEOEAS) of the grade (ln) is
given in:

http://www.faculty.uaf.edu/ffrg/Variogram.zip

The variogram is cyclic. Goes up and down.  I tried various lags/directions.


I will try to dig up the geological information and see what it says.
-- 
Rajive


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Re: [ai-geostats] Sill versus least-squares classical variance estimate

2004-12-07 Thread Meng-Ying Li
Dear List,

I think I'd like to state my problem more clearly.

What I think to be the estimate of the overall variance is the expected
variance in the future samples. This have to do with what kind of sampling
scheme we use in the future, however.

If we could assume the future samples to be enough apart from each other,
then I'd have no problem using the sill value we calculated from the
experimental variogram. Or, if we're talking about setting up a standard
value so we could compare the maximum possible variances to that of other
samples, I'd also have little doubt on the estimation using the sill
value. Otherwise I think the sill value would be generally an
over-estimation of the variance for a future sample, even for samples
collected with complete spatial randomness in the future.

And again, please correct me if I missed any important point along the
discussion. I'd really like to be careful about (geo)stats, but probably
not as careful about asking questions.


Mng-yng

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Re: [ai-geostats] variogram analysis

2004-12-07 Thread DWMCCARN




Dear Rajive:

I cannot conclude with only 328 pairs that the feature is "wavy" because I do not know how those pairs are distributed for each point in the variogram. Try different lag spacings, or create an "equal-n" lag variogram where each lag has the same number of pairs. If that shows the same feature, then perhaps there is a repeating feature (faults, fractures, ore controls, etc.) occurring at regular intervals throughout the sampling domain. I take it thatyou have 26 or so sample locations.

Using "equal-distance" lags usually gives a large number of pairs to the first couple of lags, and then the n drops off rapidly, and the variogram is harder to interpret than with an "equal-n" type variogram.

I wrote my variography codes to work both ways...

Dan ii

Dan W. McCarn, AIPG CPG #10245, Wyoming PG #3031, EurGeol #46210228 A Admiral Halsey NE; Albuquerque, NM 87111 USAHome: +1-505-822-1323; Cell: +1-505-710-3600The College of Santa Fe4501 Indian School NE Ste. 100; Albuquerque, NM 87110(505) 884-2732 fax (505) 262-5595[EMAIL PROTECTED]Institut für Geowissenschaften; Montanuniversität LeobenPeter-Tunner-Strasse 5; A8700 Leoben, AUSTRIACell: +43-676/725-6622; Fax; +43-3842-402-4902; Office: +43-3842-402-4903
In a message dated 12/7/2004 3:27:31 PM Mountain Standard Time, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
Usually when I've seen a "wavy" semivariogram, it's because of a localfeature superimposed over an existing field function - for instance, arelease of mercury in a field of soil with very low "natural" mercurycontent. The period of the waviness is related to the distance acrossthe feature (the width of the spill, in this case). Of course, this isnothing particularly earth-shattering, but useful none the less.I've used semivariograms like this in the past to "guestimate" theapproximate size of a plume based on sparse data. Not all geostatisticsends up in gridding and estimating at every point! Sometimes justlooking at the semivariogram is very useful. Tim GloverSenior Environmental Scientist - Geochemistry Geoenvironmental DepartmentMACTEC Engineering and Consulting, Inc.Kennesaw, Georgia, USAOffice 770-421-3310Fax 770-421-3486Email [EMAIL PROTECTED] Web www.mactec.com-Original Message-From: Rajive Ganguli [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] Sent: Tuesday, December 07, 2004 4:50 PMTo: [EMAIL PROTECTED]Subject: [ai-geostats] variogram analysisMy question is general. What do you conclude if your variogram iswavy? Cyclic patterns? I have what appears to be high nugget,followed by a wavy pattern.If you wish, here is more info: an offshore placer platinum deposit,not too many boreholes - just 29 from decades ago spanning severalsquare kilometers. The variogram (from GEOEAS) of the grade (ln) isgiven in:http://www.faculty.uaf.edu/ffrg/Variogram.zipThe variogram is cyclic. Goes up and down. I tried variouslags/directions. I will try to dig up the geological information and see what it says.-- Rajive


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