Re: Where is Truth?

2011-10-23 Thread Bruno Marchal
 machine  
in a quasi-direct way. The second, the physical one, result from very  
deep long and competitive struggle between all universal machines.




Would you restrict (your) machine to structural components within  
our inventory of today?


Not at all. They can have many clothes, and many different type of  
relative clothes.





HER functions to restricted into OUR present sortiment of  
activities? I like to call it an ORGANIZATION and no such  
restriction emerge. It is only a name. WE are orgqnizations as  
well, with unlimited (into our models that is) connections into the  
WORLD (infinite complexity of everything). Your Universal Computer  
may be even more compact and outreaching. (I am not talking about  
our present binary embryonic digital Kraxlwerks - we call our  
computers).


*Assuming* yes doctor, you and me are such universal machine, but  
here you and me does not refer to our special earth-local  
incarnation, but all the arithmetical incarnations.








Thanks for your thoughts



With pleasure,

Best,

Bruno



On Sat, Oct 22, 2011 at 9:26 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


On 21 Oct 2011, at 22:09, John Mikes wrote:


Hi Stephen,
it seems you are closing to 'my alley'.
First: if you don't think of  T R U T H  (in any absolute sense,  
meaning it's acceptable 'meaning') how can you abide by a version  
of it?  - What are the REALS?
I do not consider 'Arithmetic' the one and only ontological  
primitive: I cannot 'see' ontology at all in a world that changes  
ceaselessly and the 'being' (ontology) turns into 'becoming' (sort  
of epistemology?) with changing away at the instant you would  
realize it became.


Idem per idem is not a workable position.  You can explain a  
'system' only in terms looking at it from a different (outside?)  
view. Platonism is such a system. I try a common sense platform.
I asked Bruno several times how he explains as the abstract  
'numbers' (not the markers of quantity, mind you) which makes the  
fundamentals of the world. He explained: arithmetically 2 lines  
(II) and 3 lines (III) making 5 (I) that is indeed  viewable  
exactly as quantity-markers (of lines or whatever).


That's the idea.



Of course a zero (no lines) would introduce the SPACE between lines  
- yet another quantity, so with the 'abstract' of numbers we got  
bugged down in measurement techniques (physics?).


Here you might be too much literal already. The numbers are more of  
the type of mind ability to distinguish quantities of similar  
things. It is more in the mind, than in the way we might use a local  
reality to describe them.



Logic? a human way of thinking (cf the Zarathustrans in the Cohen- 
Stewart books Collapse of Chaos and The Figment of Reality) with  
other (undefinable and unlimited) ways available (maybe) in the  
'infinite complexity' of the world

- IF our term of a 'logic' is realizable in it at all.


If logic is a human way of thinking, is not logics ways of thinking  
(note the plural). There are infinities of logic. Classical logic is  
the way of the greek human thinking, and of the he ideally  
arithmetically correct machine, which can be studied to learn about  
us, like the bacteria Escherichia coli can studied for learning  
something about us.






You know a lot more in math-related terms than I do, so I gave only  
the tips of my icebergs in my thinking.


Then there is my agnosticism: the belief in the unknown part of the  
world that yet influences whatever we think of.


But here is the problem: what do you mean by world? Is there a  
world? Why not a dream. If you agree that there is something  
unknown, you believe that there is something to be known or believed  
OK?





We continually learn further parts of it, but only to the extent of  
the capabilities of our (restricted) mental capacity. So whatever  
we 'know' is partial and inadequate (adjuste, incomplete) into our  
'mini-solipsism' of Colin Hales.


What is the difference with the first person's beliefs? And with the  
first person knowledge. Are you OK with the idea that a machine can  
also have her mini-solipsism? (this would not imply that we are  
machine, just that a machine could think). I just try to have a more  
precise idea of your thinking.


Best,

Bruno





Regards

John M



On Fri, Oct 21, 2011 at 7:07 AM, Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net 
 wrote:

Hi John,

I was not thinking of truth in any absolute sense. I'm not even  
sure what that concept means... I was just considering the  
definiteness of the so-called truth value that one associates with  
Boolean logic, as in it has a range {0,1).  There are logics where  
this can vary over the Reals!
My question is about where does arithmetical truth get coded  
given that it cannot be defined in arithmetic itself? If we  
consider Arithmetic to be the one and only ontological primitive,  
it seems to me that we lose the ability to define the very  
meaningfulness of arithmetic

Re: Where is Truth?

2011-10-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 21 Oct 2011, at 22:09, John Mikes wrote:


Hi Stephen,
it seems you are closing to 'my alley'.
First: if you don't think of  T R U T H  (in any absolute sense,  
meaning it's acceptable 'meaning') how can you abide by a version of  
it?  - What are the REALS?
I do not consider 'Arithmetic' the one and only ontological  
primitive: I cannot 'see' ontology at all in a world that changes  
ceaselessly and the 'being' (ontology) turns into 'becoming' (sort  
of epistemology?) with changing away at the instant you would  
realize it became.


Idem per idem is not a workable position.  You can explain a  
'system' only in terms looking at it from a different (outside?)  
view. Platonism is such a system. I try a common sense platform.
I asked Bruno several times how he explains as the abstract  
'numbers' (not the markers of quantity, mind you) which makes the  
fundamentals of the world. He explained: arithmetically 2 lines (II)  
and 3 lines (III) making 5 (I) that is indeed  viewable exactly  
as quantity-markers (of lines or whatever).


That's the idea.



Of course a zero (no lines) would introduce the SPACE between lines  
- yet another quantity, so with the 'abstract' of numbers we got  
bugged down in measurement techniques (physics?).


Here you might be too much literal already. The numbers are more of  
the type of mind ability to distinguish quantities of similar things.  
It is more in the mind, than in the way we might use a local reality  
to describe them.



Logic? a human way of thinking (cf the Zarathustrans in the Cohen- 
Stewart books Collapse of Chaos and The Figment of Reality) with  
other (undefinable and unlimited) ways available (maybe) in the  
'infinite complexity' of the world

- IF our term of a 'logic' is realizable in it at all.


If logic is a human way of thinking, is not logics ways of thinking  
(note the plural). There are infinities of logic. Classical logic is  
the way of the greek human thinking, and of the he ideally  
arithmetically correct machine, which can be studied to learn about  
us, like the bacteria Escherichia coli can studied for learning  
something about us.






You know a lot more in math-related terms than I do, so I gave only  
the tips of my icebergs in my thinking.


Then there is my agnosticism: the belief in the unknown part of the  
world that yet influences whatever we think of.


But here is the problem: what do you mean by world? Is there a  
world? Why not a dream. If you agree that there is something unknown,  
you believe that there is something to be known or believed OK?





We continually learn further parts of it, but only to the extent of  
the capabilities of our (restricted) mental capacity. So whatever we  
'know' is partial and inadequate (adjuste, incomplete) into our  
'mini-solipsism' of Colin Hales.


What is the difference with the first person's beliefs? And with the  
first person knowledge. Are you OK with the idea that a machine can  
also have her mini-solipsism? (this would not imply that we are  
machine, just that a machine could think). I just try to have a more  
precise idea of your thinking.


Best,

Bruno





Regards

John M



On Fri, Oct 21, 2011 at 7:07 AM, Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net 
 wrote:

Hi John,

I was not thinking of truth in any absolute sense. I'm not even  
sure what that concept means... I was just considering the  
definiteness of the so-called truth value that one associates with  
Boolean logic, as in it has a range {0,1).  There are logics where  
this can vary over the Reals!
My question is about where does arithmetical truth get coded  
given that it cannot be defined in arithmetic itself? If we consider  
Arithmetic to be the one and only ontological primitive, it seems to  
me that we lose the ability to define the very meaningfulness of  
arithmetic! This is a very different thing than coding one  
arithmetic statement in another, as we have with Goedel numbering.  
What I am pointing out is that if we are beign consisstent we have  
to drop the presumption of an entity to whom a problem is defined,  
i.e. valuated. This is the problem that I have with all forms of  
Platonism, they assume something that they disallow: an entity to  
whom meaning is definite. What distinguishes the Forms from each  
other at the level of the Forms?


Onward!

Stephen


On 10/20/2011 10:18 PM, John Mikes wrote:


Dear Stephen,

as long as we are not omniscient (good condition for  
impossibillity) there is no TRUTH. As Bruno formulates his reply:
there is something like mathematical truth - but did you ask for  
such specififc definition?
Now - about mathematical truth? new funamental inventions in math  
(even maybe in arithmetics Bruno?) may alter the ideas that were  
considered as mathematical truth before those inventions. Example:  
the zero etc.
It always depends on the context one looks at the problem FROM and  
draws conclusion INTO.


John M

On Sun, Oct 16, 2011

Re: Where is Truth?

2011-10-22 Thread John Mikes
 icebergs in my thinking. *
 **
 *Then there is my agnosticism: the belief in the unknown part of the world
 that yet influences whatever we think of. *


 But here is the problem: what do you mean by world? Is there a world? Why
 not a dream. If you agree that there is something unknown, you believe that
 there is something to be known or believed OK?




  *We continually learn further parts of it, but only to the extent of the
 capabilities of our (restricted) mental capacity. So whatever we 'know' is
 partial and inadequate (adjuste, incomplete) into our 'mini-solipsism' of
 Colin Hales. *


 What is the difference with the first person's beliefs? And with the first
 person knowledge. Are you OK with the idea that a machine can also have her
 mini-solipsism? (this would not imply that we are machine, just that a
 machine could think). I just try to have a more precise idea of your
 thinking.

 Best,

 Bruno



  **
 *Regards*
 **
 *John M*
 **
 **
 * *
 On Fri, Oct 21, 2011 at 7:07 AM, Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.netwrote:

 Hi John,

 I was not thinking of truth in any absolute sense. I'm not even sure
 what that concept means... I was just considering the definiteness of the
 so-called truth value that one associates with Boolean logic, as in it has a
 range {0,1).  There are logics where this can vary over the Reals!
 My question is about where does arithmetical truth get coded given
 that it cannot be defined in arithmetic itself? If we consider Arithmetic to
 be the one and only ontological primitive, it seems to me that we lose the
 ability to define the very meaningfulness of arithmetic! This is a very
 different thing than coding one arithmetic statement in another, as we have
 with Goedel numbering. What I am pointing out is that if we are beign
 consisstent we have to drop the presumption of an entity to whom a problem
 is defined, i.e. valuated. This is the problem that I have with all forms of
 Platonism, they assume something that they disallow: an entity to whom
 meaning is definite. What distinguishes the Forms from each other at the
 level of the Forms?

 Onward!

 Stephen


 On 10/20/2011 10:18 PM, John Mikes wrote:

 Dear Stephen,

 as long as we are not omniscient (good condition for impossibillity) there
 is no TRUTH. As Bruno formulates his reply:
 there is something like mathematical truth - but did you ask for such
 specififc definition?
 Now - about mathematical truth? new funamental inventions in math (even
 maybe in arithmetics Bruno?) may alter the ideas that were considered as
 mathematical truth before those inventions. Example: the zero etc.
 It always depends on the context one looks at the problem FROM and draws
 conclusion INTO.

 John M

 On Sun, Oct 16, 2011 at 12:48 AM, Stephen P. King 
 stephe...@charter.netwrote:

 Hi,

 I ran across the following:

 http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tarski%27s_indefinability_theorem

 *Tarski's undefinability theorem*, stated and proved by Alfred 
 Tarskihttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Alfred_Tarskiin 1936, is an important 
 limitative result in mathematical
 logic http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mathematical_logic, the foundations
 of mathematics http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Foundations_of_mathematics,
 and in formal semantics http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Semantics.
 Informally, the theorem states that *arithmetical truth cannot be
 defined in arithmetic*.

 Where then is it defined?

 Onward!

 Stephen
 --



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Re: Where is Truth?

2011-10-21 Thread Stephen P. King

Hi John,

I was not thinking of truth in any absolute sense. I'm not even 
sure what that concept means... I was just considering the definiteness 
of the so-called truth value that one associates with Boolean logic, as 
in it has a range {0,1).  There are logics where this can vary over the 
Reals!
My question is about where does arithmetical truth get coded 
given that it cannot be defined in arithmetic itself? If we consider 
Arithmetic to be the one and only ontological primitive, it seems to me 
that we lose the ability to define the very meaningfulness of 
arithmetic! This is a very different thing than coding one arithmetic 
statement in another, as we have with Goedel numbering. What I am 
pointing out is that if we are beign consisstent we have to drop the 
presumption of an entity to whom a problem is defined, i.e. valuated. 
This is the problem that I have with all forms of Platonism, they assume 
something that they disallow: an entity to whom meaning is definite. 
What distinguishes the Forms from each other at the level of the Forms?


Onward!

Stephen

On 10/20/2011 10:18 PM, John Mikes wrote:

Dear Stephen,
as long as we are not omniscient (good condition for impossibillity) 
there is no TRUTH. As Bruno formulates his reply:
there is something like mathematical truth - but did you ask for 
such specififc definition?
Now - about mathematical truth? new funamental inventions in math 
(even maybe in arithmetics Bruno?) may alter the ideas that were 
considered as mathematical truth before those inventions. Example: the 
zero etc.
It always depends on the context one looks at the problem FROM and 
draws conclusion INTO.

John M

On Sun, Oct 16, 2011 at 12:48 AM, Stephen P. King 
stephe...@charter.net mailto:stephe...@charter.net wrote:


Hi,

I ran across the following:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tarski%27s_indefinability_theorem

*Tarski's undefinability theorem*, stated and proved by Alfred
Tarski http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Alfred_Tarski in 1936, is an
important limitative result in mathematical logic
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mathematical_logic, the foundations
of mathematics
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Foundations_of_mathematics, and in
formal semantics http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Semantics.
Informally, the theorem states that /arithmetical truth cannot be
defined in arithmetic/.

Where then is it defined?

Onward!

Stephen
-- 



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Re: Where is Truth?

2011-10-21 Thread Stephen P. King
 is 
endless! But there does seem to be a pattern to this madness! It seems 
as if for every kind of set there is a logic having its own algebra and 
isomorphic to some topological space. So this 4-ality is just another 
communicable idea.



**
*You know a lot more in math-related terms than I do, so I gave only 
the tips of my icebergs in my thinking. *


I have spent the last 20 years studying philosophy, physics and 
mathematics on my own and discussing ideas with many people. I have no 
one to blame for my strange ideas except myself. ;-) If they make some 
sense to someone other than me, that is wonderful, as sometimes I do not 
even understand my own mussing! It is I get possessed. It may just be 
madness. ;-P



**
*Then there is my agnosticism: the belief in the unknown part of the 
world that yet influences whatever we think of. We continually learn 
further parts of it, but only to the extent of the capabilities of our 
(restricted) mental capacity. So whatever we 'know' is partial and 
inadequate (adjuste, incomplete) into our 'mini-solipsism' of Colin 
Hales. *


I have a similar belief, I try not to name it because to do so 
constrains it to be one thing and nothing else! ;-)


Onward!

Stephen


**
*Regards*
**
*John M*
**
**
**
On Fri, Oct 21, 2011 at 7:07 AM, Stephen P. King 
stephe...@charter.net mailto:stephe...@charter.net wrote:


Hi John,

I was not thinking of truth in any absolute sense. I'm not
even sure what that concept means... I was just considering the
definiteness of the so-called truth value that one associates with
Boolean logic, as in it has a range {0,1).  There are logics where
this can vary over the Reals!
My question is about where does arithmetical truth get coded
given that it cannot be defined in arithmetic itself? If we
consider Arithmetic to be the one and only ontological primitive,
it seems to me that we lose the ability to define the very
meaningfulness of arithmetic! This is a very different thing than
coding one arithmetic statement in another, as we have with Goedel
numbering. What I am pointing out is that if we are beign
consisstent we have to drop the presumption of an entity to whom a
problem is defined, i.e. valuated. This is the problem that I have
with all forms of Platonism, they assume something that they
disallow: an entity to whom meaning is definite. What
distinguishes the Forms from each other at the level of the Forms?

Onward!

Stephen


On 10/20/2011 10:18 PM, John Mikes wrote:

Dear Stephen,
as long as we are not omniscient (good condition for
impossibillity) there is no TRUTH. As Bruno formulates his reply:
there is something like mathematical truth - but did you ask
for such specififc definition?
Now - about mathematical truth? new funamental inventions in math
(even maybe in arithmetics Bruno?) may alter the ideas that were
considered as mathematical truth before those inventions.
Example: the zero etc.
It always depends on the context one looks at the problem FROM
and draws conclusion INTO.
John M

On Sun, Oct 16, 2011 at 12:48 AM, Stephen P. King
stephe...@charter.net mailto:stephe...@charter.net wrote:

Hi,

I ran across the following:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tarski%27s_indefinability_theorem

*Tarski's undefinability theorem*, stated and proved by
Alfred Tarski http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Alfred_Tarski in
1936, is an important limitative result in mathematical logic
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mathematical_logic, the
foundations of mathematics
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Foundations_of_mathematics,
and in formal semantics
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Semantics. Informally, the
theorem states that /arithmetical truth cannot be defined in
arithmetic/.

Where then is it defined?

Onward!

Stephen
-- 





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Re: Where is Truth?

2011-10-20 Thread John Mikes
Dear Stephen,

as long as we are not omniscient (good condition for impossibillity) there
is no TRUTH. As Bruno formulates his reply:
there is something like mathematical truth - but did you ask for such
specififc definition?
Now - about mathematical truth? new funamental inventions in math (even
maybe in arithmetics Bruno?) may alter the ideas that were considered as
mathematical truth before those inventions. Example: the zero etc.
It always depends on the context one looks at the problem FROM and draws
conclusion INTO.

John M

On Sun, Oct 16, 2011 at 12:48 AM, Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.netwrote:

 Hi,

 I ran across the following:

 http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tarski%27s_indefinability_theorem

 *Tarski's undefinability theorem*, stated and proved by Alfred 
 Tarskihttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Alfred_Tarskiin 1936, is an important 
 limitative result in mathematical
 logic http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mathematical_logic, the foundations
 of mathematics http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Foundations_of_mathematics,
 and in formal semantics http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Semantics.
 Informally, the theorem states that *arithmetical truth cannot be defined
 in arithmetic*.

 Where then is it defined?

 Onward!

 Stephen

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Re: Where is Truth?

2011-10-16 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 16 Oct 2011, at 06:48, Stephen P. King wrote:


Hi,

I ran across the following:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tarski%27s_indefinability_theorem

Tarski's undefinability theorem, stated and proved by Alfred Tarski  
in 1936, is an important limitative result in mathematical logic,  
the foundations of mathematics, and in formal semantics. Informally,  
the theorem states that arithmetical truth cannot be defined in  
arithmetic.


Where then is it defined?


You can defined arithmetical truth in second order arithmetic; or in  
set theory. I have often mentioned Tarski non definability of truth to  
explain that a machine cannot define its own knowledge notion,  
including in sane04 and almost all the papers of mine that I cite. We  
cannot define Kp by Bp  True(p) because the machine cannot define, in  
its own language True(p). By the diagonalization lemma we would be  
able to construct Epimenides' paradoxical I am not true sentence. It  
might be possible to define knowledge (S4 modal operator) in some  
other way, but this has been shown impossible to by Kaplan  Montague.  
Of course Gödel knew that Bp cannot be a knowledge operator. Amazingly  
it acts like a belief operator, confirming that the ideal science of  
the correct machine leads only to beliefs (roughly speaking).


But we can define a knowledge operator at the metalevel, and this in  
the Theaetetus modus operandi, just by modeling the truth of an  
arithmetical proposition p by itself. This is the origin of the Bp  p  
hypostase. It works fine and lead to the S4Grz logic.


Also, I have often mentioned that, although a machine cannot compute  
nor even defined all its theology (the 8 hypostases), a rich Löbian  
machine, like ZF can define and study the whole theology of a simpler  
Löbian machine. Then, the rich LUM can lift that theology on itself,  
by betting on its own correctness, but at his own risk and peril: such  
an operation should not lead the machine to use its correctness as a  
brute fact (axiom), as this would make the machine unsound and  
inconsistant.


I sometimes, when I want to be short, refer to a machine theology by  
describing it by the label Tarski minus Gödel, that is the truth on  
the machine minus what the machine can prove. Incompleteness means  
that it is quite different.


Note that Löbian machines can still prove a Truth operator for each of  
all sentences with a bounded number of quantifier, and can approximate  
truth in many other ways, which I will not detail here. Tarski theorem  
is a fundamental component in the unravelling of the machine's  
theology. See my paper on Plotinus. The reason why the p hypostase,  
and the Bp  p hypostase play the role of the ONE and the SOUL  
respectively, is that the introspecting machine can discover them  
despite not being able to give them a name, and so it matches the main  
defining attribute used for them by the neoplatonist inquirers.


Bruno




Onward!

Stephen

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