Re: [R-sig-phylo] PGLS vs lm

2013-07-11 Thread Emmanuel Paradis

Hi Tom,

In an OLS regression, the residuals from both regressions (varA ~ varB 
and varB ~ varA) are different but their distributions are (more or 
less) symmetric. So, because the residuals are independent (ie, their 
covariance is null), the residual standard error will be the same (or 
very close in practice).


In GLS, the residuals are not independent, so this difference in the 
distribution of the residuals affects the estimation of the residual 
standard errors (because we need to estimate the covaraince of the 
residuals), and consequently the associated tests.


Best,

Emmanuel

Le 11/07/2013 11:03, Tom Schoenemann a écrit :

Hi all,

I ran a PGLS with two variables, call them VarA and VarB, using a phylogenetic 
tree and corPagel. When I try to predict VarA from VarB, I get a significant 
coefficient for VarB.  However, if I invert this and try to predict VarB from 
VarA, I do NOT get a significant coefficient for VarA. Shouldn't these be both 
significant, or both insignificant (the actual outputs and calls are pasted 
below)?

If I do a simple lm for these, I get the same significance level for the 
coefficients either way (i.e., lm(VarA ~ VarB) vs. lm(VarB ~ VarA), though the 
values of the coefficients of course differ.

Can someone help me understand why the PGLS would not necessarily be symmetric 
in this same way?

Thanks,

-Tom


outTree_group_by_brain_LambdaEst_redo1 - gls(log_group_size_data ~ 
log_brain_weight_data, correlation = bm.t.100species_lamEst_redo1,data = 
DF.brain.repertoire.group, method= ML)
summary(outTree_group_by_brain_LambdaEst_redo1)

Generalized least squares fit by maximum likelihood
   Model: log_group_size_data ~ log_brain_weight_data
   Data: DF.brain.repertoire.group
AIC BIClogLik
   89.45152 99.8722 -40.72576
Correlation Structure: corPagel
  Formula: ~1
  Parameter estimate(s):
lambda
0.7522738
Coefficients:
Value Std.Error   t-value p-value
(Intercept)   -0.0077276 0.2628264 -0.029402  0.9766
log_brain_weight_data  0.4636859 0.1355499  3.420778  0.0009

  Correlation:
   (Intr)
log_brain_weight_data -0.637
Standardized residuals:
Min Q1Med Q3Max
-1.7225003 -0.1696079  0.5753531  1.0705308  3.0685637
Residual standard error: 0.5250319
Degrees of freedom: 100 total; 98 residual


Here is the inverse:


outTree_brain_by_group_LambdaEst_redo1 - gls(log_brain_weight_data ~ 
log_group_size_data, correlation = bm.t.100species_lamEst_redo1,data = 
DF.brain.repertoire.group, method= ML)
summary(outTree_brain_by_group_LambdaEst_redo1)

Generalized least squares fit by maximum likelihood
   Model: log_brain_weight_data ~ log_group_size_data
   Data: DF.brain.repertoire.group
 AIC   BIC   logLik
   -39.45804 -29.03736 23.72902
Correlation Structure: corPagel
  Formula: ~1
  Parameter estimate(s):
   lambda
1.010277
Coefficients:
  Value  Std.Error   t-value p-value
(Intercept)  1.2244133 0.20948634  5.844836  0.
log_group_size_data -0.0234525 0.03723828 -0.629796  0.5303
  Correlation:
 (Intr)
log_group_size_data -0.095
Standardized residuals:
Min Q1Med Q3Max
-2.0682836 -0.3859688  1.1515176  1.5908565  3.1163377
Residual standard error: 0.4830596
Degrees of freedom: 100 total; 98 residual

_
P. Thomas Schoenemann

Associate Professor
Department of Anthropology
Cognitive Science Program
Indiana University
Bloomington, IN  47405
Phone: 812-855-8800
E-mail: t...@indiana.edu

Open Research Scan Archive (ORSA) Co-Director
Consulting Scholar
Museum of Archaeology and Anthropology
University of Pennsylvania

http://www.indiana.edu/~brainevo











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[R-sig-phylo] AICc model averaging for PGLS models with optimised lambda

2013-07-11 Thread Malpas, Lucy
Hi All,
 
I am running a pgls regression analysis in the caper package in R. My dataset 
has a continuous response variable and five explanatory variables (three 
continuous, two discrete and with multiple categories). Each datapoint in the 
response variables corresponds to a single species of which there are 67 in 
total. I plan to run multiple regression models, each model containing a 
different combination of the explanatory variables (fixed effects only, no 
interactions; total number of models in full set = 32), and then use AICc 
values to calculate AICc model weights as per Burnham  Anderson (2002). These 
weights will then be used to calculate weighted-average regression coefficients 
for each explanatory variable across all models (also as per Burnham  Anderson 
2002). The weighted-average regression coefficients will then be used for 
prediction. I am not necessarily interested in the extent of the phylogenetic 
effect - the aim is to compare results from the PGLS models to the same!
  set of models run using simple OLS regression and (hopefully) show that the 
results are broadly similar.
 
I have a phylogeny (phyl) of the 67 species taken from the literature. This 
phylogeny has no branch lengths, so I have set all branch lengths as equal to 1 
using:
phylC - compute.brlen(phyl, 1)
 
My questions are:
 
Firstly, should I be optimising the value of the lambda transformation in each 
of the 32 models to control for the different levels of phylogenetic effect 
when including different combinations of explanatory variables?
e.g.  model - pgls(y ~ x1 + x2 + x3, data=phylC, lambda = ML)
Or would it be sufficient/robust to set lambda = 1 (the default) for all 
models, thereby simply assuming that there is a phylogenetic effect without 
necessarily being interested in it's extent. Optimising lambda for all the 32 
models returns maximum likelihood values of lambda that range from 0.478 
(significantly  0 and  1 using likelihood ratio tests) to 0.
 
Secondly, if I should be optimising lambda in each model, is it meaningful to 
then compare and average across models using AICc values? Surely I could not be 
sure whether the difference in AICc (i.e. model fit) between models was due to 
the inclusion of different explanatory variables (which I am really interested 
in) or the different value of the lambda transformation?
In a previous post, David Orme wrote:
 ...it isn't necessarily safe to use AIC or deletion tests to compare models 
with different covariance structures _and_ different fixed effects, since 
changing the branch lengths affects the AIC of the model...Basically, it isn't 
easy to do model simplification of your fixed effects whilst also finding a ML 
evolutionary model for that changing set of fixed effects. Another argument for 
keeping the branch length transforms simple.
http://www.mail-archive.com/r-sig-phylo@r-project.org/msg02060.html
Though this implies that optimising lambda and then comparing models with AIC 
is not a good idea, I have found various references where this appears to have 
been done, so am confused as to what to do.
 
 
Many thanks in advance for your help,
 
Lucy Malpas
 
 
Conservation Scientist
Species Monitoring and Research, Conservation Science
The Royal Society for the Protection of Birds
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Re: [R-sig-phylo] PGLS vs lm

2013-07-11 Thread Theodore Garland Jr
I think the issue is largely one of conceptualizing the problem.
People often view body size as an independent variable when analyzing brain 
size, but obviously this is a serious oversimplificaiton -- usually done for 
statistical convenience -- that does not reflect the biology (yes, I have also 
done this!).  Moreover, brain mass is part of body mass, so if you use body 
mass per se as an independent variable then you have potential part-whole 
correlation statistical issues.

I would think carefully about what you are really wanting to do (e.g., 
regression vs. correlation vs. ANCOVA), and check over this paper:

Ives, A. R., P. E. Midford, and T. Garland, Jr. 2007. Within-species variation 
and measurement error in phylogenetic comparative methods. Systematic Biology 
56:252-270.

And maybe this one:

Garland, T., Jr., A. W. Dickerman, C. M. Janis, and J. A. Jones. 1993. 
Phylogenetic analysis of covariance by computer simulation. Systematic Biology 
42:265-292.

Cheers,
Ted

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Department of Biology
University of California, Riverside
Riverside, CA 92521
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From: r-sig-phylo-boun...@r-project.org [r-sig-phylo-boun...@r-project.org] on 
behalf of Tom Schoenemann [t...@indiana.edu]
Sent: Thursday, July 11, 2013 11:19 AM
To: Emmanuel Paradis
Cc: r-sig-phylo@r-project.org
Subject: Re: [R-sig-phylo] PGLS vs lm

Thanks Emmanuel,

OK, so this makes sense in terms of the math involved. However, from a 
practical, interpretive perspective, shouldn't I assume this to mean that we 
actually cannot say (from this data) whether VarA and VarB ARE actually 
associated with each other? In the real world, if VarA is causally related to 
VarB, then by definition they will be associated. Doesn't this type of 
situation - where the associations are judged to be statistically significant 
in one direction but not in the other - suggest that we actually DON'T have 
confidence that - independent of phylogeny - VarA is associated with VarB?  
Putting this in the context of the actual variables involved, doesn't this mean 
that we actually can't be sure brain size is associated with social group size 
(in this dataset) independent of phylogeny?

I notice that the maximum likelihood lambda estimates are different (though I'm 
not sure they are significantly so). I understand this could mathematically be 
so, but I'm concerned with how to interpret this. In the real world, how could 
phylogenetic relatedness affect group size predicting brain size, more than 
brain size predicting group size? Isn't this a logical problem (for 
interpretation - not for the math)? In other words, in evolutionary history, 
shouldn't phylogeny affect the relationship between two variables in only one 
way, which would show up whichever way we approached the association? Again, I 
understand the math may allow it, I just don't understand how it could actually 
be true over evolutionary time.

Thanks in advance for helping me understand this better,

-Tom


On Jul 11, 2013, at 5:12 AM, Emmanuel Paradis emmanuel.para...@ird.fr wrote:

 Hi Tom,

 In an OLS regression, the residuals from both regressions (varA ~ varB and 
 varB ~ varA) are different but their distributions are (more or less) 
 symmetric. So, because the residuals are independent (ie, their covariance is 
 null), the residual standard error will be the same (or very close in 
 practice).

 In GLS, the residuals are not independent, so this difference in the 
 distribution of the residuals affects the estimation of the residual standard 
 errors (because we need to estimate the covaraince of the residuals), and 
 consequently the associated tests.

 Best,
 Emmanuel

 Le 11/07/2013 11:03, Tom Schoenemann a �crit :
 Hi all,

 I ran a PGLS with two variables, call them VarA and VarB, using a 
 phylogenetic tree and corPagel. When I try to predict VarA from VarB, I get 
 a significant coefficient for VarB.  However, if I invert this and try to 
 predict VarB from VarA, I do NOT get a significant coefficient for VarA. 
 Shouldn't these be both significant, or both insignificant (the actual 
 outputs and calls are pasted below)?

 If I do a simple lm for these, I get the same significance level for the 
 coefficients either way (i.e., lm(VarA ~ VarB) vs. lm(VarB ~ VarA), though 
 the values of the coefficients of course differ.

 Can someone help me understand why the PGLS would not necessarily be 
 symmetric in this same way?

 Thanks,

 -Tom