Re: Religion Clauses question

2004-06-04 Thread JMHACLJ
Unlike some justices of the US Supreme Court, I do not think that the practice in France is particularly informative or relevant (except, perhaps, in Louisiana) (since the treaty making final the purchase of the territory guarantees to the residents of the territory all the rights they enjoyed prior to the conveyance).

Nor do I think that matrimony is the business of the state.  I am more inclined to the catholic view that matrimony is sacramental and imports an inner working of grace in the life of its participants.  But we were discussing marriage, not matrimony.  Sure they are related topics, but not the same.

As for the "underwhelming" nature of the point made, experience thus far shows that there is no argument about this subject that you do not find underwhelming.  Moreover, there is no argument that has been offered that you have not managed to malign by suggesting its ready comparison to some deep dark racist, facist, malevolent past.  The insistence that men may marry women and women may marry men is the same thing as only white men may marry white women and only white women may marry white men represents a startling failure of logic.  Given the approach you seem to be arguing for, I may marry that to which I have an attraction with the intention to maintain a level of support and affiliation different than other relations that exist.  Thus Justice Scalia is proven correct when he anticipates that your argument justifies adult incest and polymarriage.  

It would be candidly refreshing if proponents of same sex marriage would acknowledge that their arguments destroy the unique nature of marriage.  Of course, some leading voices in the homosexual special rights community have done just that, have acknowledged and declared that their intention is to acquire access to marriage so that they can change its essential nature and role in society.

Jim Henderson
Senior Counsel
ACLJ
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Re: Religion Clauses question

2004-06-04 Thread Robert Obrien

Paul Finkelman wrote:


> well, Jim, some countries do not define marriage that way at all; the
> French don't let the state do marriages.

I suspect that Finkelman used the word "state" where he meant "church."

Below is a section on French marriage law provided by the State Deparment:

"French law recognises only the civil marriage. This must be performed by a
French Civil Authority (officier de l'état civil), which includes the mayor
(maire), his legally authorised replacement - the deputy mayor (adjoint) or
a city councillor (conseiller municipal).

''American diplomatic and consular officers do not have legal authority to
perform marriages. Because of the French legal requirement that civil
marriages take place in a French mairie (city hall), marriages CANNOT be
performed within the Embassy or within an American Consular office in
France.

"Religious ceremonies are optional, have no legal status and may only be
held after the civil ceremony has taken place (which can, but need not be,
on the same day.)"


Bob O'Brien




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Re: Religion Clauses question

2004-06-04 Thread Robert Obrien
I am at a loss to understand why the issue of marriage is such a big deal.

Protestants do not consider marriage a sacrament; therefore, whether people
get married is religiously irrelevant.

The Roman Catholic Church refuses to recognize divorces granted by the
state.  Judaism grants divorces which are not recognized by the state.

In fine, the distinction between civil marriage and religious marriage has
long been recognized.  If the state is willing to allow two or more people
to marry while a particular church refuses to recognize such a marriage, I
do not see why that church should care.


Bob O'Brien


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Re: Gay Activists Threaten Church Tax-Exempt Status

2004-06-04 Thread Douglas Laycock

I was
making only Marty's point (ii).  As to his point (i), If the church
wants to buy media time for political ads, it can do that through the
501(c)(4) affiliate as well as anyone else.
But if the
pastor, or the rabbi, or the archbishop, wants to urge his faithful to
support the candidate that is more willing to feed the hungry, it is not
remotely the same to have that message come from Joe Doaks at the
501(c)(4) affiliate.  And if the religious leader wants to speak on
this issue from the pulpit, or in a pastoral letter, it doesn't help to
put him on the payroll of the 501(c)(4) affiliate for 10% of his
time.  I think that lawyers for churches -- at least those who pay
attention to the periodic warnings from the IRS on this issue -- believe
that if the religious leader of the church speaks, his speech will be
attributed to the church itself and not to any affiliate.  The
bottom line is that the rule censors pastors in the pulpit, and that is a
constitutional problem.
At 02:12 PM 6/3/2004 -0400, you wrote:

I'm a bit unclear on one part of Doug's
post.  Are you saying, Doug, 
 
(i) that the church is differently situated
because, unlike secular nonprofits, it can't (or realistically won't be
able to) set up an affiliate through which to engage in political speech
(if so, why is that true?), or, alternatively,
 
(ii) that for some reason the partisan
political speech of the spiritual leader is qualitatively "very
different" -- in a way that should matter for statutory or
constitutional analysis? -- from the partisan political speech of her
nonreligious counterpart? 
 
 
- Original Message - 

From: Douglas
Laycock 
To: Law &
Religion issues for Law Academics 
Sent: Thursday, June 03, 2004 12:10 PM
Subject: RE: Gay Activists Threaten Church Tax-Exempt
Status

    I agree that the absolute
limit on candidate advocacy is a problem.  Of course it is a problem
for all other non-profits as well, and the usual solution is to set up a
political affiliate.  The one other way in which churches are
differently situated is the speech of the clergy.  When the church
addresses a moral issue, including the positions of competing candidates
on that moral issue, it is very different for the spiritual leader to
make the statement versus the head of the 501(c)(4) affiliate making the
statement.  I agree with Marty's analysis of current law, but the
restriction on the speech of the clergy is a constitutional
problem.

At 10:52 AM 6/3/2004 -0400, you
wrote:
content-class: urn:content-classes:message
Content-Type: multipart/alternative;
boundary="_=_NextPart_001_01C4497A.74159228"

"urn:schemas-microsoft-com:vml" xmlns:o =
"urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:office" xmlns:w =
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"urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:smarttags">

The "susbtantial" limit on lobbying does provide ample
breathing room for most religious institutions, including any bona fide
house of worship I could imagine.  And there's probably no limit on
religious groups' advocacy re moral issues, where the advocacy isn't also
lobbying.
 
But there's no such latitude re advocacy for candidates, and we are,
after all, in an election year.  So I expect that the candidate part
of the limit will be asserted frequently in the months to come, and it
could well represent a meaningful threat.
  
-Original Message- 
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]On
Behalf Of marc stern 
Sent: Thursday, June 03, 2004 9:44 AM 
To: 'Law & Religion issues for Law Academics' 
Subject: RE: Gay Activists Threaten Church Tax-Exempt 
Status

There really is nothing to the threat. Churches are free to take
stands on political issues provided they do not spend a substantial
amount on these activities. The late Dean Kelly obtained an internal IRS
memo which indicted that insubstantial was between 5-20% of an
organization s budget. The document was informal and would not bind the
IRS, but it describes a fairly safe harbor. Non-church groups can opt for
a different and more predictable set of rules, but at the behest of
churches which then insisted that the government could not stop them from
advocating for legislation at the expense of exemption, churches were not
offered the option. 
Marc Stern 
  

From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
On Behalf Of Francis Beckwith 
Sent: Thursday, June 03, 2004 8:16 AM 
To: Religion Law Mailing List 
Subject: Gay Activists Threaten Church Tax-Exempt Status 
Importance: Low 
Just got this from a friend.  It is published by Focus on the
Family, a conservative Christian outfit in Colorado Springs. 
Frank

---

June 1, 2004 
Church's Tax-Exempt Status Threatened 



by Steve Jordahl, correspondent 
Pro-homosexual group lodges complaint with the state against a
Montana church that aired the "Battle for Marriage" satellite
broadcast. 
A Montana church, one of hundreds across the country to broadcast a
pro-marriage TV special on May 23, ha

Re: Gay Activists Threaten Church Tax-Exempt Status

2004-06-04 Thread Marty Lederman



If I'm understand you corerctly, Doug, you're 
arguing that the restrictions as applied to the religious leader are more 
constitutionally problematic than as applied to the leader of a nonreligious 
501, because urging the faithful from the pulpit to vote for X is "not 
remotely the same" as the nonreligious leader urging a different (diffuse and/or 
secular) audience to vote for X.  Of course, the impact generally 
will be different, because the religious leader speaks from 
religious authority to the faithful, and thus presumably is more 
effective at persuading her audience than is the nonreligious leader.  I 
understand why the state therefore would have an even greater interest in 
ensuring that tax benefits are not used to facilitate that (very effective) 
partisan speech.  But why would the religious leader's 
constitutional injury be any greater than that of her secular 
counterpart?

  - Original Message - 
  From: 
  Douglas Laycock 
  To: Law & Religion issues for Law 
  Academics 
  Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 11:21 
AM
  Subject: Re: Gay Activists Threaten 
  Church Tax-Exempt Status
  I was 
  making only Marty's point (ii).  As to his point (i), If the church wants 
  to buy media time for political ads, it can do that through the 501(c)(4) 
  affiliate as well as anyone 
  else.But 
  if the pastor, or the rabbi, or the archbishop, wants to urge his faithful to 
  support the candidate that is more willing to feed the hungry, it is not 
  remotely the same to have that message come from Joe Doaks at the 501(c)(4) 
  affiliate.  And if the religious leader wants to speak on this issue from 
  the pulpit, or in a pastoral letter, it doesn't help to put him on the payroll 
  of the 501(c)(4) affiliate for 10% of his time.  I think that lawyers for 
  churches -- at least those who pay attention to the periodic warnings from the 
  IRS on this issue -- believe that if the religious leader of the church 
  speaks, his speech will be attributed to the church itself and not to any 
  affiliate.  The bottom line is that the rule censors pastors in the 
  pulpit, and that is a constitutional problem.At 02:12 PM 6/3/2004 
  -0400, you wrote:
  I'm a bit unclear on one part of Doug's post.  Are 
you saying, Doug,  (i) that the 
church is differently situated because, unlike secular nonprofits, it can't 
(or realistically won't be able to) set up an affiliate through which to 
engage in political speech (if so, why is that true?), or, 
alternatively, (ii) that for 
some reason the partisan political speech of the spiritual leader is 
qualitatively "very different" -- in a way that should matter for statutory 
or constitutional analysis? -- from the partisan political speech of her 
nonreligious counterpart?   - Original 
Message - 

  From: Douglas 
  Laycock 
  To: Law & Religion 
  issues for Law Academics 
  Sent: Thursday, June 03, 2004 12:10 PM 
  Subject: RE: Gay Activists Threaten Church Tax-Exempt 
  Status
      I agree that the absolute 
  limit on candidate advocacy is a problem.  Of course it is a problem 
  for all other non-profits as well, and the usual solution is to set up a 
  political affiliate.  The one other way in which churches are 
  differently situated is the speech of the clergy.  When the church 
  addresses a moral issue, including the positions of competing candidates 
  on that moral issue, it is very different for the spiritual leader to make 
  the statement versus the head of the 501(c)(4) affiliate making the 
  statement.  I agree with Marty's analysis of current law, but the 
  restriction on the speech of the clergy is a constitutional 
  problem.
  At 10:52 AM 6/3/2004 -0400, you wrote:
  
content-class: urn:content-classes:message 
Content-Type: multipart/alternative; 
boundary="_=_NextPart_001_01C4497A.74159228"
"urn:schemas-microsoft-com:vml" xmlns:o = 
"urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:office" xmlns:w = 
"urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:word" xmlns:st1 = 
"urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:smarttags"> 
The "susbtantial" limit on lobbying does provide ample breathing 
room for most religious institutions, including any bona fide house of 
worship I could imagine.  And there's probably no limit on 
religious groups' advocacy re moral issues, where the advocacy isn't 
also lobbying. 
 
But there's no such latitude re advocacy for candidates, and we are, 
after all, in an election year.  So I expect that the candidate 
part of the limit will be asserted frequently in the months to come, and 
it could well represent a meaningful threat. 
  
-Original Message- 
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]On Behalf

Latest "released time" controversy

2004-06-04 Thread Volokh, Eugene
http://www.augustafreepress.com/stories/storyReader$22599


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Re: Gay Activists Threaten Church Tax-Exempt Status

2004-06-04 Thread Douglas Laycock

Maybe if a
secular 501(c)(3) has a well known leader who has built up special
credibility with his members, there might be a similar
problem.   But the IRS may also be much more likely to accept
the defense that that leader is partly on the payroll of the
501(c)(4).   It looks impossibly fictional when the pastor
claims to speak for the 501(c)(4), because he does not, and really
cannot, shed his religious authority.  The fiction is more tenable
for a secular leader who speaks in a secular capacity for either
organization.  I don't know what the IRS says or thinks about a
secular leader wearing two hats, but the reason I don't know may be that
prominent examples hardly ever arise. 
In any
event, I have no stake in arguing that no secular groups have a similar
claim to the one I suggested with respect to churches.  If some of
their leaders are effectively prevented from speaking on candidates
addressing issues important to the organization, I think they have a
troubling free speech claim too.   A pastor addressing moral issues
from the pulpit is about as core an example of free speech and free
exercise as one can imagine, and an asserted compelling interest in
censoring that speech would have to be compelling indeed.


At 10:21 AM 6/4/2004 -0500, Douglas Laycock wrote:
I
was making only Marty's point (ii).  As to his point (i), If the
church wants to buy media time for political ads, it can do that through
the 501(c)(4) affiliate as well as anyone else.
But if the
pastor, or the rabbi, or the archbishop, wants to urge his faithful to
support the candidate that is more willing to feed the hungry, it is not
remotely the same to have that message come from Joe Doaks at the
501(c)(4) affiliate.  And if the religious leader wants to speak on
this issue from the pulpit, or in a pastoral letter, it doesn't help to
put him on the payroll of the 501(c)(4) affiliate for 10% of his
time.  I think that lawyers for churches -- at least those who pay
attention to the periodic warnings from the IRS on this issue -- believe
that if the religious leader of the church speaks, his speech will be
attributed to the church itself and not to any affiliate.  The
bottom line is that the rule censors pastors in the pulpit, and that is a
constitutional problem.
At 02:12 PM 6/3/2004 -0400, you wrote:

I'm a bit unclear on one part of Doug's
post.  Are you saying, Doug, 
 
(i) that the church is differently situated
because, unlike secular nonprofits, it can't (or realistically won't be
able to) set up an affiliate through which to engage in political speech
(if so, why is that true?), or, alternatively,
 
(ii) that for some reason the partisan
political speech of the spiritual leader is qualitatively "very
different" -- in a way that should matter for statutory or
constitutional analysis? -- from the partisan political speech of her
nonreligious counterpart? 
 
 
- Original Message - 

From: Douglas
Laycock 
To: Law & Religion
issues for Law Academics 
Sent: Thursday, June 03, 2004 12:10 PM 
Subject: RE: Gay Activists Threaten Church Tax-Exempt 
Status

    I agree that the absolute
limit on candidate advocacy is a problem.  Of course it is a problem
for all other non-profits as well, and the usual solution is to set up a
political affiliate.  The one other way in which churches are
differently situated is the speech of the clergy.  When the church
addresses a moral issue, including the positions of competing candidates
on that moral issue, it is very different for the spiritual leader to
make the statement versus the head of the 501(c)(4) affiliate making the
statement.  I agree with Marty's analysis of current law, but the
restriction on the speech of the clergy is a constitutional
problem.

At 10:52 AM 6/3/2004 -0400, you
wrote:
content-class: urn:content-classes:message 
Content-Type: multipart/alternative; 
boundary="_=_NextPart_001_01C4497A.74159228"

"urn:schemas-microsoft-com:vml" xmlns:o =
"urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:office" xmlns:w =
"urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:word" xmlns:st1 =
"urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:smarttags">

The "susbtantial" limit on lobbying does provide ample
breathing room for most religious institutions, including any bona fide
house of worship I could imagine.  And there's probably no limit on
religious groups' advocacy re moral issues, where the advocacy isn't also
lobbying. 
  
But there's no such latitude re advocacy for candidates, and we are,
after all, in an election year.  So I expect that the candidate part
of the limit will be asserted frequently in the months to come, and it
could well represent a meaningful threat. 
  
-Original Message- 
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]On
Behalf Of marc stern 
Sent: Thursday, June 03, 2004 9:44 AM 
To: 'Law & Religion issues for Law Academics' 
Subject: RE: Gay Activists Threaten Church Tax-Exempt
Status
There really is nothing to the threat. Church

RE: Gay Activists Threaten Church Tax-Exempt Status

2004-06-04 Thread Berg, Thomas C.
(An earlier version of this got lost in cyberspace, apparently.)

>From the religious standpoint, I think the concern is that the leader of the
faith community -- say, the diocesan bishop -- should also be the leader and
teacher in public pronouncements on moral and social issues, and should be
able to do so in his capacity as spiritual leader -- as Doug puts it, from
the pulpit or in a pastoral letter.  The concern would be that the IRS would
view such an overlap in organizational leaders and spokespersons -- and in
the forum for the two pronouncements -- as evidence of a failure to
segregate the two organizations.  If the IRS withdraws the tax exemption on
that basis, it would mean that the church lost the exemption -- for its
charitable, non-political activities as well -- as the price of following
its doctrinally mandated organizational structure.  By losing the exemption
for *all* of its activities, the church is suffering a penalty.
 
As I said, in theory a secular organization could have a similar doctrinal
belief that the leader and public teacher/spokesperson on its exempt
activities must also be the leader and public teacher/spokesperson on its
non-exempt (i.e. legislation-related) activities.  But like Doug, I can't
think of a secular example where the organization believes this as a matter
of conscientious doctrine.  It may be more convenient, less costly, more
effective, etc. for the same people to do both -- that would indeed be true
for all organizations, not distinctively so for churches.  But I'm talking
about a different concern, the conscientious tenet about who should speak.
Is there a secular organization that is comparable to certain religious
groups in that it has a conscientious belief, as part of its doctrines, that
certain leaders must be the public teachers and spokespersons on all issues?
 
Again, perhaps the most that this shows is that all such groups have some
distinctive normative claim to accommodation, whether they are religious or
secular.  If there is such a claim, then since it seems that the vast
majority of such groups would be religious, wouldn't the better course be to
accommodate them under RFRA, and then fashion a similar accommodation for
the occasional secular group that might come along?  (Analogous to Harlan's
expanding the draft exemption in Welsh.)
 
Tom Berg


***
Thomas C. Berg
University of St. Thomas School of Law
Mail # MSL 400
1000 La Salle Avenue
Minneapolis, MN   55403-2015
Phone: (651) 962-4918
Fax: (651) 962-4996
[EMAIL PROTECTED] 




-Original Message-
From: A.E. Brownstein [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Thursday, June 03, 2004 1:44 PM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Gay Activists Threaten Church Tax-Exempt Status


I'm not sure I fully understand this argument, but I don't know all that 
much about church doctrine or tax law. Can you help me, Tom. Is the 
argument that the religious leaders of certain faith communities are 
prohibited by church doctrine from serving in leadership positions or 
taking on speaking roles in 501(c)(4) organizations? Or is it a tax law 
problem? Do IRS regulations make it difficult for clergy to participate in 
501(c)(4) organizations, perhaps because they receive compensation from a 
501(c)(3)? Can someone work part time at both a 501(c)(3) and part time at 
a 501(c)(4)? Can a church categorize itself as a (c)(4) organization and 
lose its tax exempt status? If so, that takes us back to problems relating 
to the impracticality of segregating one's activities and the cost in lost 
subsidies and exemptions of maintaining organizational and operational 
unity -- but that problem applies to both secular and religious individuals 
and institutions.

I understand the argument that clergy have to be able to be free to speak 
out on political issues. What I'm less clear about is why they have to be 
able to do so from a tax exempt status.

I suppose the second issue suggested by Tom's post is whether church rules 
about polity effectively respond to the free speech concern. If only 
associations expressing a particular viewpoint have certain kinds of rules 
about who can speak for the organization, and that distinction is accepted 
as a justification for regulating the speech of those associations less 
rigorously than the speech of associations with different viewpoints, does 
that resolve the debate distorting consequence of accepting this 
distinction? Avoiding debate distorting government action is, after all, 
why we are concerned about viewpoint discrimination in the first place.

Alan Brownstein
UC Davis


At 11:37 AM 6/3/2004 -0500, you wrote:
>I'm not sure about the following argument, but what do you think of it?
The
>ban on lobbying can be circumvented by setting up a separate 501(c)(4)
>organization, which the Court in Regan said was relevant (if not crucial)
to
>its constitutionality.  Suppose that it doesn't cost much in terms of
>admini

Re: Religion Clauses question

2004-06-04 Thread ArtSpitzer

In a message dated 6/4/04 7:57:29 AM, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:


(except, perhaps, in Louisiana) (since the treaty making final the purchase of the territory guarantees to the residents of the territory all the rights they enjoyed prior to the conveyance).


Jim-
You would have to say "except, perhaps, in Louisiana and all or part of Missouri, Iowa, North Dakota, Texas, South Dakota, New Mexico, Nebraska, Kansas, Wyoming, Minnesota, Oklahoma, Colorado and Montana."
Art
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RE: Gay Activists Threaten Church Tax-Exempt Status

2004-06-04 Thread Nathan Oman

I wonder if thinking about the President of the United States might be useful here.  
Clearly, the fact that he is President gives him a certain charismatic authority, and 
that authority is linked to the office that he holds.  At the same time, Presidents 
generally serve as the de facto head of their political parties.  Now obviously the 
Presidency is not a 501(c)(3) in danger of losing its tax exempt status if the 
President engages in partisan speech.  On the other hand, we do have regulations about 
his ability to use the office of President for partisan political purposes.  We 
require that Presidents set up seperate entities for political purposes.  Furthermore, 
it seems that these requirements are about more than simply the use of government 
funds.  For example, it is my understanding that the President cannot use the 
presidential seal on partisan political materials, etc., even though the 
"presidentialness" conveyed by the seal is at the heart of the political message that 
every incumbent President wants to use at reelection time.

Does this constitute a secular example of the sort of problem that Berg and Doug see?

Nate Oman

-- Original Message --
From: "Berg, Thomas C." <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Reply-To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Date: Fri, 4 Jun 2004 11:08:41 -0500

>(An earlier version of this got lost in cyberspace, apparently.)
>
>>From the religious standpoint, I think the concern is that the leader of the
>faith community -- say, the diocesan bishop -- should also be the leader and
>teacher in public pronouncements on moral and social issues, and should be
>able to do so in his capacity as spiritual leader -- as Doug puts it, from
>the pulpit or in a pastoral letter.  The concern would be that the IRS would
>view such an overlap in organizational leaders and spokespersons -- and in
>the forum for the two pronouncements -- as evidence of a failure to
>segregate the two organizations.  If the IRS withdraws the tax exemption on
>that basis, it would mean that the church lost the exemption -- for its
>charitable, non-political activities as well -- as the price of following
>its doctrinally mandated organizational structure.  By losing the exemption
>for *all* of its activities, the church is suffering a penalty.
>
>As I said, in theory a secular organization could have a similar doctrinal
>belief that the leader and public teacher/spokesperson on its exempt
>activities must also be the leader and public teacher/spokesperson on its
>non-exempt (i.e. legislation-related) activities.  But like Doug, I can't
>think of a secular example where the organization believes this as a matter
>of conscientious doctrine.  It may be more convenient, less costly, more
>effective, etc. for the same people to do both -- that would indeed be true
>for all organizations, not distinctively so for churches.  But I'm talking
>about a different concern, the conscientious tenet about who should speak.
>Is there a secular organization that is comparable to certain religious
>groups in that it has a conscientious belief, as part of its doctrines, that
>certain leaders must be the public teachers and spokespersons on all issues?
>
>Again, perhaps the most that this shows is that all such groups have some
>distinctive normative claim to accommodation, whether they are religious or
>secular.  If there is such a claim, then since it seems that the vast
>majority of such groups would be religious, wouldn't the better course be to
>accommodate them under RFRA, and then fashion a similar accommodation for
>the occasional secular group that might come along?  (Analogous to Harlan's
>expanding the draft exemption in Welsh.)
>
>Tom Berg
>
>
>***
>Thomas C. Berg
>University of St. Thomas School of Law
>Mail # MSL 400
>1000 La Salle Avenue
>Minneapolis, MN   55403-2015
>Phone: (651) 962-4918
>Fax: (651) 962-4996
>[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>
>
>
>
>-Original Message-
>From: A.E. Brownstein [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>Sent: Thursday, June 03, 2004 1:44 PM
>To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
>Subject: RE: Gay Activists Threaten Church Tax-Exempt Status
>
>
>I'm not sure I fully understand this argument, but I don't know all that
>much about church doctrine or tax law. Can you help me, Tom. Is the
>argument that the religious leaders of certain faith communities are
>prohibited by church doctrine from serving in leadership positions or
>taking on speaking roles in 501(c)(4) organizations? Or is it a tax law
>problem? Do IRS regulations make it difficult for clergy to participate in
>501(c)(4) organizations, perhaps because they receive compensation from a 
>501(c)(3)? Can someone work part time at both a 501(c)(3) and part time at
>a 501(c)(4)? Can a church categorize itself as a (c)(4) organization and
>lose its tax exempt status? If so, that takes us back to problems relating
>to the impracticality of segrega

Re: Religion Clauses question

2004-06-04 Thread Nathan Oman
Actually it gets even more fun.  Louisiana was a French territory when purchased, but 
for much of its history it was Spainish, so you would need to be able to look at 
Spainish law as well.  Furthermore, the Treaty of Guadalupe Hidalgo contained a 
similar provision with regard to the territory ceded from Mexico under the treaty (CA, 
AZ, NM, NV, CO, UT).  So Spainish and Mexican law would become relevent for those 
states.  French law might then also be important as a source of persuasive authority, 
it being another civil law jurisdiction and all. 

Hence, it turns out that MOST of the geographical area of the United States has a 
submerged civil law substratum of one kind or another.

Nate Oman

-- Original Message --
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Reply-To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Date: Fri, 4 Jun 2004 12:26:49 EDT

>
>In a message dated 6/4/04 7:57:29 AM, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
>
>
>> (except, perhaps, in Louisiana) (since the treaty making final the purchase 
>> of the territory guarantees to the residents of the territory all the rights 
>> they enjoyed prior to the conveyance).
>> 
>
>Jim-
>You would have to say "except, perhaps, in Louisiana and all or part of 
>Missouri, Iowa, North Dakota, Texas, South Dakota, New Mexico, Nebraska, Kansas, 
>Wyoming, Minnesota, Oklahoma, Colorado and Montana."
>Art
>
>
>

--
Nathan Oman

http://www.tutissima.com
http://www.timesandseasons.org
--
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New religious speech at school controversy

2004-06-04 Thread Eastman, John
A student at the public high school in Poway, California has sued the
school district, challenging his suspension for wearing a T-Shirt on
national gay rights day (or the "Day of Silence," I think it was called)
that stated his religious objection to homosexuality.

See
http://www.signonsandiego.com/news/northcounty/20040603--1mi3suit.ht
ml

Any thoughts on this suit?  On the School's action suspending the
student?

John Eastman
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RE: Religion Clauses question

2004-06-04 Thread Gene Summerlin
Bob,

Your point is valid, so let me try to answer the question of why should the
government care?  If we separate the sacrimental value of marriage from the
legal aspects of marriage, we can agree that if a church or other entity
wishes to "marry" same sex partners, the church is free to do so.  But,
because the same sex marriage does not meet the legal definition of
marriage, the same-sex partners are not entitled to the legal benefits of
marriage.  The question really becomes why does/can/should the state provide
incentives to some couples to marry (in the legal sense) and withhold those
benefits from other couples?

Social research indicates that adults in heterosexual marriages do better
than single, divorced or cohabitating couples in virtually every measure of
well-being. Heterosexual married couples live longer, express a higher
degree of satisfaction with life, enjoy higher levels of physical and mental
health, recover from illness quicker, earn and save more money, are more
reliable employees, suffer less stress, and are less likely to become
victims of any kind of violence. As mentioned in an earlier post, children
residing in intact heterosexual marriages also gain a number of advantages
over peers in other living arrangements.  On the other side of the coin,
there is a significant social cost to care for and treat the problems
associated with broken marriages.  That is, to the extent that people and
children chose (or are forced) into non-heterosexual marriage living
arrangements, they are more likely to have health problems, economic
problems, abuse issues, etc.  Society ultimately pays a financial price to
treat and attempt to remedy these issues.

By enacting policies which promote heterosexual marriages, the state
preserves resources which would otherwise be spent on social welfare
programs.  Therefore, the state provides economic incentives to encourage
people to form the type of family unit that best utilizes the state's
resources.


Gene Summerlin
Ogborn Summerlin & Ogborn P.C.
210 Windsor Place
330 So. 10th St.
Lincoln, NE  68508
(402) 434-8040
(402) 434-8044 (FAX)
(402) 730-5344 (Mobile)
www.osolaw.com
[EMAIL PROTECTED]


-Original Message-
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] Behalf Of Robert Obrien
Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 8:11 AM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question


I am at a loss to understand why the issue of marriage is such a big deal.

Protestants do not consider marriage a sacrament; therefore, whether people
get married is religiously irrelevant.

The Roman Catholic Church refuses to recognize divorces granted by the
state.  Judaism grants divorces which are not recognized by the state.

In fine, the distinction between civil marriage and religious marriage has
long been recognized.  If the state is willing to allow two or more people
to marry while a particular church refuses to recognize such a marriage, I
do not see why that church should care.


Bob O'Brien


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RE: Gay Activists Threaten Church Tax-Exempt Status

2004-06-04 Thread A.E. Brownstein
Thanks, Tom. Your post and Doug's are helpful (at least to me). I think you 
are both right that a religious leader technically on the payroll of a 
(c)(4) organization who delivered regular partisan political sermons from 
the church pulpit or through pastoral letters would raise questions from 
the IRS.

But it seems to me that this alters the discussion a bit. The focus is not 
so much on an individual's role as a spiritual leader, but on the location, 
format, and forum in which they engage in political activities.
I certainly agree that any government control over what occurs in a 
religious service in a house of worship raises free exercise issues. It is 
far less clear to me those issues can be resolved in the manner you propose.

Here, free exercise and free speech values are intractably intermingled. 
And if the focus is location and forum, then the range of analogies from a 
free speech perspective is far broader than you suggest. I am not sure 
there is any sound basis for limiting this issue from a speech perspective 
to the ability of non-profits to engage in partisan political activities. 
The question should be whether it is constitutionally problematic for 
government to require segregation of organizations engaged in subsidized or 
non-subsidized expressive activities whenever there is a distinct normative 
claim for operating in a more unitary format. Clearly, the physicians in 
Rust could raise such an argument about their normative duties as doctors 
-- and other professionals would have similar arguments.

Also, I don't see how grounding the discriminatory rule you propose on a 
unique, normative distinction that in practical terms applies only to 
religious institutions resolves the viewpoint discrimination issue here. If 
courts are unwilling to recognize distinctive aspects of religion as a 
basis for permitting government to discriminate against religious speakers, 
I find it difficult to accept that the position that distinctive aspects of 
religion can be used to justify discrimination in favor of religious 
speakers. Accommodations that do not directly involve expressive 
activities, like the draft cases, raise very different questions and are 
more easily justified through formal generalizations.

Accommodations of religion that distinctively empower religious messages 
and political influence raise particularly problematic concerns.


Alan Brownstein
UC Davis


At 11:08 AM 6/4/2004 -0500, you wrote:
(An earlier version of this got lost in cyberspace, apparently.)
>From the religious standpoint, I think the concern is that the leader of the
faith community -- say, the diocesan bishop -- should also be the leader and
teacher in public pronouncements on moral and social issues, and should be
able to do so in his capacity as spiritual leader -- as Doug puts it, from
the pulpit or in a pastoral letter.  The concern would be that the IRS would
view such an overlap in organizational leaders and spokespersons -- and in
the forum for the two pronouncements -- as evidence of a failure to
segregate the two organizations.  If the IRS withdraws the tax exemption on
that basis, it would mean that the church lost the exemption -- for its
charitable, non-political activities as well -- as the price of following
its doctrinally mandated organizational structure.  By losing the exemption
for *all* of its activities, the church is suffering a penalty.
As I said, in theory a secular organization could have a similar doctrinal
belief that the leader and public teacher/spokesperson on its exempt
activities must also be the leader and public teacher/spokesperson on its
non-exempt (i.e. legislation-related) activities.  But like Doug, I can't
think of a secular example where the organization believes this as a matter
of conscientious doctrine.  It may be more convenient, less costly, more
effective, etc. for the same people to do both -- that would indeed be true
for all organizations, not distinctively so for churches.  But I'm talking
about a different concern, the conscientious tenet about who should speak.
Is there a secular organization that is comparable to certain religious
groups in that it has a conscientious belief, as part of its doctrines, that
certain leaders must be the public teachers and spokespersons on all issues?
Again, perhaps the most that this shows is that all such groups have some
distinctive normative claim to accommodation, whether they are religious or
secular.  If there is such a claim, then since it seems that the vast
majority of such groups would be religious, wouldn't the better course be to
accommodate them under RFRA, and then fashion a similar accommodation for
the occasional secular group that might come along?  (Analogous to Harlan's
expanding the draft exemption in Welsh.)
Tom Berg
***
Thomas C. Berg
University of St. Thomas School of Law
Mail # MSL 400
1000 La Salle Avenue
Minneapolis, MN   55403-2015
Phone: (651) 962-4918
Fax: (651) 962-4996
[EM

Re: Religion Clauses question

2004-06-04 Thread Paul Finkelman
Mr. Summerlin's statistical arumement is interesting.  Remove the word 
"heterosexual" from it and it makes great sense.  *Married* people live 
longer, have greater life satisfaction, etc.

Summerlin seems to be arguing that only "heterosexuals" benefit from 
marriage, but of course we have not statistics on gay marriage because 
up until now it is illegal. Thus, this "social research" on marriage is 
a strong argument for allowing gay marriage because it will lead to 
healthier people because they are married.  Furthermore, it illustrates 
the equal protection aguement.  Most gay people cannot marry members of 
the opposite sex.  After all, the marriage would not work, since 
physical attraction and sexual relations are, after all, an important 
part of marriage.  Therefore, by denying gay people the *right* to marry 
you are in effect, as Summerlin's suggests, denying them the right to 
"live longer, express a higher degree of satisfaction with life, enjoy 
higher levels of physical and mental health, recover from illness 
quicker, earn and save more money, are more reliable employees, suffer 
less stress, and are less likely to become victims of any kind of 
violence."

Mr. Summerlin's posting, it seems to me, is the strongest argument I 
have heard on why allowing gay marriage is legally *and* morally right. 
 Surely, no one on this list would aruge that we should deny the right 
to "live longer" etc to people who are incapable of marrying member 
of the opposite sex.

Paul Finkelman

Gene Summerlin wrote:
Bob,
Your point is valid, so let me try to answer the question of why should the
government care?  If we separate the sacrimental value of marriage from the
legal aspects of marriage, we can agree that if a church or other entity
wishes to "marry" same sex partners, the church is free to do so.  But,
because the same sex marriage does not meet the legal definition of
marriage, the same-sex partners are not entitled to the legal benefits of
marriage.  The question really becomes why does/can/should the state provide
incentives to some couples to marry (in the legal sense) and withhold those
benefits from other couples?
Social research indicates that adults in heterosexual marriages do better
than single, divorced or cohabitating couples in virtually every measure of
well-being. Heterosexual married couples live longer, express a higher
degree of satisfaction with life, enjoy higher levels of physical and mental
health, recover from illness quicker, earn and save more money, are more
reliable employees, suffer less stress, and are less likely to become
victims of any kind of violence. As mentioned in an earlier post, children
residing in intact heterosexual marriages also gain a number of advantages
over peers in other living arrangements.  On the other side of the coin,
there is a significant social cost to care for and treat the problems
associated with broken marriages.  That is, to the extent that people and
children chose (or are forced) into non-heterosexual marriage living
arrangements, they are more likely to have health problems, economic
problems, abuse issues, etc.  Society ultimately pays a financial price to
treat and attempt to remedy these issues.
By enacting policies which promote heterosexual marriages, the state
preserves resources which would otherwise be spent on social welfare
programs.  Therefore, the state provides economic incentives to encourage
people to form the type of family unit that best utilizes the state's
resources.
Gene Summerlin
Ogborn Summerlin & Ogborn P.C.
210 Windsor Place
330 So. 10th St.
Lincoln, NE  68508
(402) 434-8040
(402) 434-8044 (FAX)
(402) 730-5344 (Mobile)
www.osolaw.com
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
-Original Message-
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] Behalf Of Robert Obrien
Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 8:11 AM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question
I am at a loss to understand why the issue of marriage is such a big deal.
Protestants do not consider marriage a sacrament; therefore, whether people
get married is religiously irrelevant.
The Roman Catholic Church refuses to recognize divorces granted by the
state.  Judaism grants divorces which are not recognized by the state.
In fine, the distinction between civil marriage and religious marriage has
long been recognized.  If the state is willing to allow two or more people
to marry while a particular church refuses to recognize such a marriage, I
do not see why that church should care.
Bob O'Brien
NTMail K12 - the Mail Server for Education
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Re: Religion Clauses question

2004-06-04 Thread Robert Obrien
Then you agree that chuches, as churches, and religious people, as religious
people, have no reason to be interested in the subject?  (My puzzlement did
not concern why the state should care.)

Bob O'Brien



- Original Message - 
From: "Gene Summerlin" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: "'Law & Religion issues for Law Academics'" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 1:40 PM
Subject: RE: Religion Clauses question


> Bob,
>
> Your point is valid, so let me try to answer the question of why should
the
> government care?  If we separate the sacrimental value of marriage from
the
> legal aspects of marriage, we can agree that if a church or other entity
> wishes to "marry" same sex partners, the church is free to do so.  But,
> because the same sex marriage does not meet the legal definition of
> marriage, the same-sex partners are not entitled to the legal benefits of
> marriage.  The question really becomes why does/can/should the state
provide
> incentives to some couples to marry (in the legal sense) and withhold
those
> benefits from other couples?
>
> Social research indicates that adults in heterosexual marriages do better
> than single, divorced or cohabitating couples in virtually every measure
of
> well-being. Heterosexual married couples live longer, express a higher
> degree of satisfaction with life, enjoy higher levels of physical and
mental
> health, recover from illness quicker, earn and save more money, are more
> reliable employees, suffer less stress, and are less likely to become
> victims of any kind of violence. As mentioned in an earlier post, children
> residing in intact heterosexual marriages also gain a number of advantages
> over peers in other living arrangements.  On the other side of the coin,
> there is a significant social cost to care for and treat the problems
> associated with broken marriages.  That is, to the extent that people and
> children chose (or are forced) into non-heterosexual marriage living
> arrangements, they are more likely to have health problems, economic
> problems, abuse issues, etc.  Society ultimately pays a financial price to
> treat and attempt to remedy these issues.
>
> By enacting policies which promote heterosexual marriages, the state
> preserves resources which would otherwise be spent on social welfare
> programs.  Therefore, the state provides economic incentives to encourage
> people to form the type of family unit that best utilizes the state's
> resources.
>
>
> Gene Summerlin
> Ogborn Summerlin & Ogborn P.C.
> 210 Windsor Place
> 330 So. 10th St.
> Lincoln, NE  68508
> (402) 434-8040
> (402) 434-8044 (FAX)
> (402) 730-5344 (Mobile)
> www.osolaw.com
> [EMAIL PROTECTED]
>
>
> -Original Message-
> From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] Behalf Of Robert Obrien
> Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 8:11 AM
> To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
> Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question
>
>
> I am at a loss to understand why the issue of marriage is such a big deal.
>
> Protestants do not consider marriage a sacrament; therefore, whether
people
> get married is religiously irrelevant.
>
> The Roman Catholic Church refuses to recognize divorces granted by the
> state.  Judaism grants divorces which are not recognized by the state.
>
> In fine, the distinction between civil marriage and religious marriage has
> long been recognized.  If the state is willing to allow two or more people
> to marry while a particular church refuses to recognize such a marriage, I
> do not see why that church should care.
>
>
> Bob O'Brien
>
>
> NTMail K12 - the Mail Server for Education
> ___
> To post, send message to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> To subscribe, unsubscribe, change options, or get password, see
> http://lists.ucla.edu/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/religionlaw
>
> ___
> To post, send message to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
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RE: Religion Clauses question

2004-06-04 Thread Gene Summerlin
Except that churches and religious people all live in and form part of our
society, so they should not be precluded from expressing these same societal
concerns.  But no, I am not arguing that we should create a theocratic
government.

Gene Summerlin
Ogborn Summerlin & Ogborn P.C.
210 Windsor Place
330 So. 10th St.
Lincoln, NE  68508
(402) 434-8040
(402) 434-8044 (FAX)
(402) 730-5344 (Mobile)
www.osolaw.com
[EMAIL PROTECTED]


-Original Message-
From: Robert Obrien [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 1:06 PM
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]; Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question


Then you agree that chuches, as churches, and religious people, as religious
people, have no reason to be interested in the subject?  (My puzzlement did
not concern why the state should care.)

Bob O'Brien



- Original Message -
From: "Gene Summerlin" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: "'Law & Religion issues for Law Academics'" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 1:40 PM
Subject: RE: Religion Clauses question


> Bob,
>
> Your point is valid, so let me try to answer the question of why should
the
> government care?  If we separate the sacrimental value of marriage from
the
> legal aspects of marriage, we can agree that if a church or other entity
> wishes to "marry" same sex partners, the church is free to do so.  But,
> because the same sex marriage does not meet the legal definition of
> marriage, the same-sex partners are not entitled to the legal benefits of
> marriage.  The question really becomes why does/can/should the state
provide
> incentives to some couples to marry (in the legal sense) and withhold
those
> benefits from other couples?
>
> Social research indicates that adults in heterosexual marriages do better
> than single, divorced or cohabitating couples in virtually every measure
of
> well-being. Heterosexual married couples live longer, express a higher
> degree of satisfaction with life, enjoy higher levels of physical and
mental
> health, recover from illness quicker, earn and save more money, are more
> reliable employees, suffer less stress, and are less likely to become
> victims of any kind of violence. As mentioned in an earlier post, children
> residing in intact heterosexual marriages also gain a number of advantages
> over peers in other living arrangements.  On the other side of the coin,
> there is a significant social cost to care for and treat the problems
> associated with broken marriages.  That is, to the extent that people and
> children chose (or are forced) into non-heterosexual marriage living
> arrangements, they are more likely to have health problems, economic
> problems, abuse issues, etc.  Society ultimately pays a financial price to
> treat and attempt to remedy these issues.
>
> By enacting policies which promote heterosexual marriages, the state
> preserves resources which would otherwise be spent on social welfare
> programs.  Therefore, the state provides economic incentives to encourage
> people to form the type of family unit that best utilizes the state's
> resources.
>
>
> Gene Summerlin
> Ogborn Summerlin & Ogborn P.C.
> 210 Windsor Place
> 330 So. 10th St.
> Lincoln, NE  68508
> (402) 434-8040
> (402) 434-8044 (FAX)
> (402) 730-5344 (Mobile)
> www.osolaw.com
> [EMAIL PROTECTED]
>
>
> -Original Message-
> From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] Behalf Of Robert Obrien
> Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 8:11 AM
> To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
> Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question
>
>
> I am at a loss to understand why the issue of marriage is such a big deal.
>
> Protestants do not consider marriage a sacrament; therefore, whether
people
> get married is religiously irrelevant.
>
> The Roman Catholic Church refuses to recognize divorces granted by the
> state.  Judaism grants divorces which are not recognized by the state.
>
> In fine, the distinction between civil marriage and religious marriage has
> long been recognized.  If the state is willing to allow two or more people
> to marry while a particular church refuses to recognize such a marriage, I
> do not see why that church should care.
>
>
> Bob O'Brien
>
>
> NTMail K12 - the Mail Server for Education
> ___
> To post, send message to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> To subscribe, unsubscribe, change options, or get password, see
> http://lists.ucla.edu/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/religionlaw
>
> ___
> To post, send message to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
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RE: Religion Clauses question

2004-06-04 Thread Gene Summerlin
Paul,

You have to consider the statistical argument within the context of what it
measures, so if the measurement is based on heterosexual marriages, we
aren't free to remove the term "heterosexual" and say, "See, all marriage of
every type creates these benefits."  That is an intellectually dishonest use
of statistics.  (Please understand, I am not saying you are being
intellectually dishonest, merely that arguing from statistics in that way
would be).

Paul is correct that we lack the breadth of data regarding same sex
marriages that we have concerning heterosexual marriage, but the data we do
have indicates that the benefits to society we gain from heterosexual
marriage would not be generated from same sex marriage.  A recent study from
the Netherlands, where same-sex marriage is legal, reports male homosexual
relationships last, on average, 1.5 years, and gay men have an average of
eight partners a year outside of their "committed" relationships.  Maria
Xiridou, et al., “The Contributions of Steady and Casual Partnerships to the
Incidence of HIV Infection Among Homosexual Men in Amsterdam,” AIDS, 17
(2003): 1029.38.  Contrast that with the fact that 67 percent of first
marriages in the United States last 10 years, and more than three quarters
of heterosexual married couples report no sexual partners other than their
spouse.

To refocus the discussion on the law aspects of this list, it appears to me
that a strong argument can be made that the government is justified in
withholding the legal benefits of marriage, that is the incentive to marry,
from any family arrangement other than heterosexual marriage.

Gene Summerlin
Ogborn Summerlin & Ogborn P.C.
210 Windsor Place
330 So. 10th St.
Lincoln, NE  68508
(402) 434-8040
(402) 434-8044 (FAX)
(402) 730-5344 (Mobile)
www.osolaw.com
[EMAIL PROTECTED]


-Original Message-
From: Paul Finkelman [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 12:54 PM
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]; Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question


Mr. Summerlin's statistical arumement is interesting.  Remove the word
"heterosexual" from it and it makes great sense.  *Married* people live
longer, have greater life satisfaction, etc.

Summerlin seems to be arguing that only "heterosexuals" benefit from
marriage, but of course we have not statistics on gay marriage because
up until now it is illegal. Thus, this "social research" on marriage is
a strong argument for allowing gay marriage because it will lead to
healthier people because they are married.  Furthermore, it illustrates
the equal protection aguement.  Most gay people cannot marry members of
the opposite sex.  After all, the marriage would not work, since
physical attraction and sexual relations are, after all, an important
part of marriage.  Therefore, by denying gay people the *right* to marry
you are in effect, as Summerlin's suggests, denying them the right to
"live longer, express a higher degree of satisfaction with life, enjoy
higher levels of physical and mental health, recover from illness
quicker, earn and save more money, are more reliable employees, suffer
less stress, and are less likely to become victims of any kind of
violence."

Mr. Summerlin's posting, it seems to me, is the strongest argument I
have heard on why allowing gay marriage is legally *and* morally right.
  Surely, no one on this list would aruge that we should deny the right
to "live longer" etc to people who are incapable of marrying member
of the opposite sex.

Paul Finkelman



Gene Summerlin wrote:
> Bob,
>
> Your point is valid, so let me try to answer the question of why should
the
> government care?  If we separate the sacrimental value of marriage from
the
> legal aspects of marriage, we can agree that if a church or other entity
> wishes to "marry" same sex partners, the church is free to do so.  But,
> because the same sex marriage does not meet the legal definition of
> marriage, the same-sex partners are not entitled to the legal benefits of
> marriage.  The question really becomes why does/can/should the state
provide
> incentives to some couples to marry (in the legal sense) and withhold
those
> benefits from other couples?
>
> Social research indicates that adults in heterosexual marriages do better
> than single, divorced or cohabitating couples in virtually every measure
of
> well-being. Heterosexual married couples live longer, express a higher
> degree of satisfaction with life, enjoy higher levels of physical and
mental
> health, recover from illness quicker, earn and save more money, are more
> reliable employees, suffer less stress, and are less likely to become
> victims of any kind of violence. As mentioned in an earlier post, children
> residing in intact heterosexual marriages also gain a number of advantages
> over peers in other living arrangements.  On the other side of the coin,
> there is a significant social cost to care for and treat the problems
> associated with broke

Re: Religion Clauses question

2004-06-04 Thread Paul Finkelman
this only shows that the exeperiment is not working as well as opposite 
sex marriage (but you don't offer number on those marriage in Holland); 
neverhteless if the statistics show that marraige improves life then all 
people should be allowed to be married.  If the succdess rate of gay 
marriage is half that of straight marriage, that woulc certainly be a 
benefit to those who are in it; and in any event you offer no statistics 
on same sex marriage for women;  what happens if we get numbers which 
show that same sex marriages for women last *longer* that opposite sex 
maraige in the US.  Would that be an argument for banning opposite-sex 
mrrriage because it is not as successful as women in same sex marriage?

Gene Summerlin wrote:
Paul,
You have to consider the statistical argument within the context of what it
measures, so if the measurement is based on heterosexual marriages, we
aren't free to remove the term "heterosexual" and say, "See, all marriage of
every type creates these benefits."  That is an intellectually dishonest use
of statistics.  (Please understand, I am not saying you are being
intellectually dishonest, merely that arguing from statistics in that way
would be).
Paul is correct that we lack the breadth of data regarding same sex
marriages that we have concerning heterosexual marriage, but the data we do
have indicates that the benefits to society we gain from heterosexual
marriage would not be generated from same sex marriage.  A recent study from
the Netherlands, where same-sex marriage is legal, reports male homosexual
relationships last, on average, 1.5 years, and gay men have an average of
eight partners a year outside of their "committed" relationships.  Maria
Xiridou, et al., “The Contributions of Steady and Casual Partnerships to the
Incidence of HIV Infection Among Homosexual Men in Amsterdam,” AIDS, 17
(2003): 1029.38.  Contrast that with the fact that 67 percent of first
marriages in the United States last 10 years, and more than three quarters
of heterosexual married couples report no sexual partners other than their
spouse.
To refocus the discussion on the law aspects of this list, it appears to me
that a strong argument can be made that the government is justified in
withholding the legal benefits of marriage, that is the incentive to marry,
from any family arrangement other than heterosexual marriage.
Gene Summerlin
Ogborn Summerlin & Ogborn P.C.
210 Windsor Place
330 So. 10th St.
Lincoln, NE  68508
(402) 434-8040
(402) 434-8044 (FAX)
(402) 730-5344 (Mobile)
www.osolaw.com
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
-Original Message-
From: Paul Finkelman [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 12:54 PM
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]; Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question
Mr. Summerlin's statistical arumement is interesting.  Remove the word
"heterosexual" from it and it makes great sense.  *Married* people live
longer, have greater life satisfaction, etc.
Summerlin seems to be arguing that only "heterosexuals" benefit from
marriage, but of course we have not statistics on gay marriage because
up until now it is illegal. Thus, this "social research" on marriage is
a strong argument for allowing gay marriage because it will lead to
healthier people because they are married.  Furthermore, it illustrates
the equal protection aguement.  Most gay people cannot marry members of
the opposite sex.  After all, the marriage would not work, since
physical attraction and sexual relations are, after all, an important
part of marriage.  Therefore, by denying gay people the *right* to marry
you are in effect, as Summerlin's suggests, denying them the right to
"live longer, express a higher degree of satisfaction with life, enjoy
higher levels of physical and mental health, recover from illness
quicker, earn and save more money, are more reliable employees, suffer
less stress, and are less likely to become victims of any kind of
violence."
Mr. Summerlin's posting, it seems to me, is the strongest argument I
have heard on why allowing gay marriage is legally *and* morally right.
  Surely, no one on this list would aruge that we should deny the right
to "live longer" etc to people who are incapable of marrying member
of the opposite sex.
Paul Finkelman

Gene Summerlin wrote:
Bob,
Your point is valid, so let me try to answer the question of why should
the
government care?  If we separate the sacrimental value of marriage from
the
legal aspects of marriage, we can agree that if a church or other entity
wishes to "marry" same sex partners, the church is free to do so.  But,
because the same sex marriage does not meet the legal definition of
marriage, the same-sex partners are not entitled to the legal benefits of
marriage.  The question really becomes why does/can/should the state
provide
incentives to some couples to marry (in the legal sense) and withhold
those
benefits from other couples?
Social research indicates that adults in heterosexual marriages do be

RE: Religion Clauses question

2004-06-04 Thread drothman1

 The only valid comparison I know of would be between committed
 homosexual relationships in a country before enactment (of law
 permitting homosexual marriage) and in homosexual marriages in
 that same country after enactment.  One could study disease in
 either partner, or number of children being raised.  I'd guess
 that after marriage the amount of disease would decrease while
 the number of children would increase.  Since both changes, if
 found, would be in the interest of our society, there wouldn't
 be much left to discuss.

 Dave, 310-676-4032
 David Rothman
 14125 Doty Avenue, #23
 Hawthorne, CA 90250-8042
 [EMAIL PROTECTED]


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RE: Religion Clauses question

2004-06-04 Thread Gene Summerlin
Paul,

I think we are talking past each other here, so I will leave it at this:
the statistics don't show that "marriage" improves the quality of life, but
that "heterosexual marriage" improves the quality of life.  The limited
statistics that we do have concerning same-sex marriage indicates that it
will not provide these same benefits.  The proponents of such a major change
in social policy should, in my opinion, provide more justification than
"let's try this experiment and see what happens."

Gene Summerlin
Ogborn Summerlin & Ogborn P.C.
210 Windsor Place
330 So. 10th St.
Lincoln, NE  68508
(402) 434-8040
(402) 434-8044 (FAX)
(402) 730-5344 (Mobile)
www.osolaw.com
[EMAIL PROTECTED]


-Original Message-
From: Paul Finkelman [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 1:37 PM
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Cc: 'Law & Religion issues for Law Academics'
Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question


this only shows that the exeperiment is not working as well as opposite
sex marriage (but you don't offer number on those marriage in Holland);
neverhteless if the statistics show that marraige improves life then all
people should be allowed to be married.  If the succdess rate of gay
marriage is half that of straight marriage, that woulc certainly be a
benefit to those who are in it; and in any event you offer no statistics
on same sex marriage for women;  what happens if we get numbers which
show that same sex marriages for women last *longer* that opposite sex
maraige in the US.  Would that be an argument for banning opposite-sex
mrrriage because it is not as successful as women in same sex marriage?

Gene Summerlin wrote:
> Paul,
>
> You have to consider the statistical argument within the context of what
it
> measures, so if the measurement is based on heterosexual marriages, we
> aren't free to remove the term "heterosexual" and say, "See, all marriage
of
> every type creates these benefits."  That is an intellectually dishonest
use
> of statistics.  (Please understand, I am not saying you are being
> intellectually dishonest, merely that arguing from statistics in that way
> would be).
>
> Paul is correct that we lack the breadth of data regarding same sex
> marriages that we have concerning heterosexual marriage, but the data we
do
> have indicates that the benefits to society we gain from heterosexual
> marriage would not be generated from same sex marriage.  A recent study
from
> the Netherlands, where same-sex marriage is legal, reports male homosexual
> relationships last, on average, 1.5 years, and gay men have an average of
> eight partners a year outside of their "committed" relationships.  Maria
> Xiridou, et al., “The Contributions of Steady and Casual Partnerships to
the
> Incidence of HIV Infection Among Homosexual Men in Amsterdam,” AIDS, 17
> (2003): 1029.38.  Contrast that with the fact that 67 percent of first
> marriages in the United States last 10 years, and more than three quarters
> of heterosexual married couples report no sexual partners other than their
> spouse.
>
> To refocus the discussion on the law aspects of this list, it appears to
me
> that a strong argument can be made that the government is justified in
> withholding the legal benefits of marriage, that is the incentive to
marry,
> from any family arrangement other than heterosexual marriage.
>
> Gene Summerlin
> Ogborn Summerlin & Ogborn P.C.
> 210 Windsor Place
> 330 So. 10th St.
> Lincoln, NE  68508
> (402) 434-8040
> (402) 434-8044 (FAX)
> (402) 730-5344 (Mobile)
> www.osolaw.com
> [EMAIL PROTECTED]
>
>
> -Original Message-
> From: Paul Finkelman [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 12:54 PM
> To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]; Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
> Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question
>
>
> Mr. Summerlin's statistical arumement is interesting.  Remove the word
> "heterosexual" from it and it makes great sense.  *Married* people live
> longer, have greater life satisfaction, etc.
>
> Summerlin seems to be arguing that only "heterosexuals" benefit from
> marriage, but of course we have not statistics on gay marriage because
> up until now it is illegal. Thus, this "social research" on marriage is
> a strong argument for allowing gay marriage because it will lead to
> healthier people because they are married.  Furthermore, it illustrates
> the equal protection aguement.  Most gay people cannot marry members of
> the opposite sex.  After all, the marriage would not work, since
> physical attraction and sexual relations are, after all, an important
> part of marriage.  Therefore, by denying gay people the *right* to marry
> you are in effect, as Summerlin's suggests, denying them the right to
> "live longer, express a higher degree of satisfaction with life, enjoy
> higher levels of physical and mental health, recover from illness
> quicker, earn and save more money, are more reliable employees, suffer
> less stress, and are less likely to become victims of any kind of
> violence.

Re: New religious speech at school controversy

2004-06-04 Thread FRAP428
Well, if the situation had arisen here in the heart of Dixie (not Alabama but south Georgia), it likely the Eleventh Circuit would uphold the suspension relying on its decisions in a pair of Confederate flag cases. In Denno v. School Bd. of Volusia County  and  Scott v. School Bd. of Alachua County, it found that potential offensiveness is sufficient for school officials to restrict students' speech (restrict as in disciplinary suspension).  

Frances R. A. Paterson, J.D., Ed.D.
Associate Professor (school law)
Department of Educational Leadership
Valdosta State University
Valdosta, GA 31698
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Re: Religion Clauses question

2004-06-04 Thread Paul Finkelman
We are actually not entirely talking by each other; you just are 
uninterested in the possibility that allowing same sex marriage might 
improve the lives of gay people; you make a very good point that 
marriage improves life; You are just unwilling to give that opportunity 
to all Americans.  Instead, you fall back on the argument that there is 
no proof same sex marriage is good for people so therefore we should 
never allow it.   In the context of this list I would suggest you ponder 
the concept of "doing unto others" and ask yourself the simple question: 
 if some gay people might benefit from the right marry, should we not 
give them that right?  If most do not benefit from it, what harm will 
have been done?

Gene Summerlin wrote:
Paul,
I think we are talking past each other here, so I will leave it at this:
the statistics don't show that "marriage" improves the quality of life, but
that "heterosexual marriage" improves the quality of life.  The limited
statistics that we do have concerning same-sex marriage indicates that it
will not provide these same benefits.  The proponents of such a major change
in social policy should, in my opinion, provide more justification than
"let's try this experiment and see what happens."
Gene Summerlin
Ogborn Summerlin & Ogborn P.C.
210 Windsor Place
330 So. 10th St.
Lincoln, NE  68508
(402) 434-8040
(402) 434-8044 (FAX)
(402) 730-5344 (Mobile)
www.osolaw.com
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
-Original Message-
From: Paul Finkelman [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 1:37 PM
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Cc: 'Law & Religion issues for Law Academics'
Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question
this only shows that the exeperiment is not working as well as opposite
sex marriage (but you don't offer number on those marriage in Holland);
neverhteless if the statistics show that marraige improves life then all
people should be allowed to be married.  If the succdess rate of gay
marriage is half that of straight marriage, that woulc certainly be a
benefit to those who are in it; and in any event you offer no statistics
on same sex marriage for women;  what happens if we get numbers which
show that same sex marriages for women last *longer* that opposite sex
maraige in the US.  Would that be an argument for banning opposite-sex
mrrriage because it is not as successful as women in same sex marriage?
Gene Summerlin wrote:
Paul,
You have to consider the statistical argument within the context of what
it
measures, so if the measurement is based on heterosexual marriages, we
aren't free to remove the term "heterosexual" and say, "See, all marriage
of
every type creates these benefits."  That is an intellectually dishonest
use
of statistics.  (Please understand, I am not saying you are being
intellectually dishonest, merely that arguing from statistics in that way
would be).
Paul is correct that we lack the breadth of data regarding same sex
marriages that we have concerning heterosexual marriage, but the data we
do
have indicates that the benefits to society we gain from heterosexual
marriage would not be generated from same sex marriage.  A recent study
from
the Netherlands, where same-sex marriage is legal, reports male homosexual
relationships last, on average, 1.5 years, and gay men have an average of
eight partners a year outside of their "committed" relationships.  Maria
Xiridou, et al., “The Contributions of Steady and Casual Partnerships to
the
Incidence of HIV Infection Among Homosexual Men in Amsterdam,” AIDS, 17
(2003): 1029.38.  Contrast that with the fact that 67 percent of first
marriages in the United States last 10 years, and more than three quarters
of heterosexual married couples report no sexual partners other than their
spouse.
To refocus the discussion on the law aspects of this list, it appears to
me
that a strong argument can be made that the government is justified in
withholding the legal benefits of marriage, that is the incentive to
marry,
from any family arrangement other than heterosexual marriage.
Gene Summerlin
Ogborn Summerlin & Ogborn P.C.
210 Windsor Place
330 So. 10th St.
Lincoln, NE  68508
(402) 434-8040
(402) 434-8044 (FAX)
(402) 730-5344 (Mobile)
www.osolaw.com
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
-Original Message-
From: Paul Finkelman [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 12:54 PM
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]; Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question
Mr. Summerlin's statistical arumement is interesting.  Remove the word
"heterosexual" from it and it makes great sense.  *Married* people live
longer, have greater life satisfaction, etc.
Summerlin seems to be arguing that only "heterosexuals" benefit from
marriage, but of course we have not statistics on gay marriage because
up until now it is illegal. Thus, this "social research" on marriage is
a strong argument for allowing gay marriage because it will lead to
healthier people because they are married.  Furthermore, it illustrates
the equal protection aguem

Re: Religion Clauses question

2004-06-04 Thread Amar D. Sarwal
Does your analysis (in your POV) apply with equal force to the transgendered
and adult incest situations?  If not, why not?

- Original Message - 
From: "Paul Finkelman" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Cc: "'Law & Religion issues for Law Academics'" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 3:07 PM
Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question


> We are actually not entirely talking by each other; you just are
> uninterested in the possibility that allowing same sex marriage might
> improve the lives of gay people; you make a very good point that
> marriage improves life; You are just unwilling to give that opportunity
> to all Americans.  Instead, you fall back on the argument that there is
> no proof same sex marriage is good for people so therefore we should
> never allow it.   In the context of this list I would suggest you ponder
> the concept of "doing unto others" and ask yourself the simple question:
>   if some gay people might benefit from the right marry, should we not
> give them that right?  If most do not benefit from it, what harm will
> have been done?
>
> Gene Summerlin wrote:
> > Paul,
> >
> > I think we are talking past each other here, so I will leave it at this:
> > the statistics don't show that "marriage" improves the quality of life,
but
> > that "heterosexual marriage" improves the quality of life.  The limited
> > statistics that we do have concerning same-sex marriage indicates that
it
> > will not provide these same benefits.  The proponents of such a major
change
> > in social policy should, in my opinion, provide more justification than
> > "let's try this experiment and see what happens."
> >
> > Gene Summerlin
> > Ogborn Summerlin & Ogborn P.C.
> > 210 Windsor Place
> > 330 So. 10th St.
> > Lincoln, NE  68508
> > (402) 434-8040
> > (402) 434-8044 (FAX)
> > (402) 730-5344 (Mobile)
> > www.osolaw.com
> > [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> >
> >
> > -Original Message-
> > From: Paul Finkelman [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> > Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 1:37 PM
> > To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> > Cc: 'Law & Religion issues for Law Academics'
> > Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question
> >
> >
> > this only shows that the exeperiment is not working as well as opposite
> > sex marriage (but you don't offer number on those marriage in Holland);
> > neverhteless if the statistics show that marraige improves life then all
> > people should be allowed to be married.  If the succdess rate of gay
> > marriage is half that of straight marriage, that woulc certainly be a
> > benefit to those who are in it; and in any event you offer no statistics
> > on same sex marriage for women;  what happens if we get numbers which
> > show that same sex marriages for women last *longer* that opposite sex
> > maraige in the US.  Would that be an argument for banning opposite-sex
> > mrrriage because it is not as successful as women in same sex marriage?
> >
> > Gene Summerlin wrote:
> >
> >>Paul,
> >>
> >>You have to consider the statistical argument within the context of what
> >
> > it
> >
> >>measures, so if the measurement is based on heterosexual marriages, we
> >>aren't free to remove the term "heterosexual" and say, "See, all
marriage
> >
> > of
> >
> >>every type creates these benefits."  That is an intellectually dishonest
> >
> > use
> >
> >>of statistics.  (Please understand, I am not saying you are being
> >>intellectually dishonest, merely that arguing from statistics in that
way
> >>would be).
> >>
> >>Paul is correct that we lack the breadth of data regarding same sex
> >>marriages that we have concerning heterosexual marriage, but the data we
> >
> > do
> >
> >>have indicates that the benefits to society we gain from heterosexual
> >>marriage would not be generated from same sex marriage.  A recent study
> >
> > from
> >
> >>the Netherlands, where same-sex marriage is legal, reports male
homosexual
> >>relationships last, on average, 1.5 years, and gay men have an average
of
> >>eight partners a year outside of their "committed" relationships.  Maria
> >>Xiridou, et al., “The Contributions of Steady and Casual Partnerships to
> >
> > the
> >
> >>Incidence of HIV Infection Among Homosexual Men in Amsterdam,” AIDS, 17
> >>(2003): 1029.38.  Contrast that with the fact that 67 percent of first
> >>marriages in the United States last 10 years, and more than three
quarters
> >>of heterosexual married couples report no sexual partners other than
their
> >>spouse.
> >>
> >>To refocus the discussion on the law aspects of this list, it appears to
> >
> > me
> >
> >>that a strong argument can be made that the government is justified in
> >>withholding the legal benefits of marriage, that is the incentive to
> >
> > marry,
> >
> >>from any family arrangement other than heterosexual marriage.
> >>
> >>Gene Summerlin
> >>Ogborn Summerlin & Ogborn P.C.
> >>210 Windsor Place
> >>330 So. 10th St.
> >>Lincoln, NE  68508
> >>(402) 434-8040
> >>(402) 434-8044 (FAX)
> >>(402) 730-5344 (Mobile)
> >>www.o

Re: Religion Clauses question

2004-06-04 Thread JMHACLJ
And of course, neither the French legal tradition nor the Spanish legal tradition would permit the residents of those territories to refuse the constitutional wisdom and insights of Supreme Court that finds in the text of the Constitution a "wall of separation," a right to take the life of another simply because that other is not yet born, or a right to commit acts of such ignomy that they have been referred to in the English legal tradition as the abominable and detestable crime against nature.

Jim Henderson
Senior Counsel
ACLJ
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Re: Religion Clauses question

2004-06-04 Thread Paul Finkelman
I do not know enough about transgendered relationships to comment; as 
for "incest" -- my first thought is that unlike gay people, it would be 
hard to argue that adults can only marry close family members. Part of 
my arguemnt is that Mr. Summerlin makes a strong case that marriage is 
good for people -- he wants to narow this to straight people but with 
not much evidence that gay people cannot also benefit.  My point is that 
 on equal protection grounds if marriage is good for all people then 
all people should be allowed to participate in the way they can; gay 
people   cannot be expected to marry straight people so they should be 
able to marry other gay people.  But, this argument would not work for 
and "incest" marriage.  We have no reason to believe that a straight 
adult male can *only* marry his sister; he might want to marry her, but 
that would be a different issue.  Similarly, this arguent would cut 
against polygamy; there is no evidence that the benefit of marriage is 
possible *only* if a straight man has three wives; or a straight women 
had three husbands.  There may be 1st amndment arguments for allowing 
polygamy, but that is a different argument.

Amar D. Sarwal wrote:
Does your analysis (in your POV) apply with equal force to the transgendered
and adult incest situations?  If not, why not?
- Original Message - 
From: "Paul Finkelman" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Cc: "'Law & Religion issues for Law Academics'" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 3:07 PM
Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question


We are actually not entirely talking by each other; you just are
uninterested in the possibility that allowing same sex marriage might
improve the lives of gay people; you make a very good point that
marriage improves life; You are just unwilling to give that opportunity
to all Americans.  Instead, you fall back on the argument that there is
no proof same sex marriage is good for people so therefore we should
never allow it.   In the context of this list I would suggest you ponder
the concept of "doing unto others" and ask yourself the simple question:
 if some gay people might benefit from the right marry, should we not
give them that right?  If most do not benefit from it, what harm will
have been done?
Gene Summerlin wrote:
Paul,
I think we are talking past each other here, so I will leave it at this:
the statistics don't show that "marriage" improves the quality of life,

but
that "heterosexual marriage" improves the quality of life.  The limited
statistics that we do have concerning same-sex marriage indicates that

it
will not provide these same benefits.  The proponents of such a major

change
in social policy should, in my opinion, provide more justification than
"let's try this experiment and see what happens."
Gene Summerlin
Ogborn Summerlin & Ogborn P.C.
210 Windsor Place
330 So. 10th St.
Lincoln, NE  68508
(402) 434-8040
(402) 434-8044 (FAX)
(402) 730-5344 (Mobile)
www.osolaw.com
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
-Original Message-
From: Paul Finkelman [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 1:37 PM
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Cc: 'Law & Religion issues for Law Academics'
Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question
this only shows that the exeperiment is not working as well as opposite
sex marriage (but you don't offer number on those marriage in Holland);
neverhteless if the statistics show that marraige improves life then all
people should be allowed to be married.  If the succdess rate of gay
marriage is half that of straight marriage, that woulc certainly be a
benefit to those who are in it; and in any event you offer no statistics
on same sex marriage for women;  what happens if we get numbers which
show that same sex marriages for women last *longer* that opposite sex
maraige in the US.  Would that be an argument for banning opposite-sex
mrrriage because it is not as successful as women in same sex marriage?
Gene Summerlin wrote:

Paul,
You have to consider the statistical argument within the context of what
it

measures, so if the measurement is based on heterosexual marriages, we
aren't free to remove the term "heterosexual" and say, "See, all

marriage
of

every type creates these benefits."  That is an intellectually dishonest
use

of statistics.  (Please understand, I am not saying you are being
intellectually dishonest, merely that arguing from statistics in that

way
would be).
Paul is correct that we lack the breadth of data regarding same sex
marriages that we have concerning heterosexual marriage, but the data we
do

have indicates that the benefits to society we gain from heterosexual
marriage would not be generated from same sex marriage.  A recent study
from

the Netherlands, where same-sex marriage is legal, reports male

homosexual
relationships last, on average, 1.5 years, and gay men have an average

of
eight partners a year outside of their "committed" relationships.  Maria
Xiridou, et al., “The Contributions of Steady and Casual

Re: Religion Clauses question

2004-06-04 Thread Amar D. Sarwal
Following your reasoning below, if one believes (in good faith) that
homosexual orientation/proclivity to homosexual conduct is not immutable,
then that person would not be akin to segregationists, et al.  Right?

- Original Message - 
From: "Paul Finkelman" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: "Amar D. Sarwal" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Cc: "Law & Religion issues for Law Academics" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 3:41 PM
Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question


> I do not know enough about transgendered relationships to comment; as
> for "incest" -- my first thought is that unlike gay people, it would be
> hard to argue that adults can only marry close family members. Part of
> my arguemnt is that Mr. Summerlin makes a strong case that marriage is
> good for people -- he wants to narow this to straight people but with
> not much evidence that gay people cannot also benefit.  My point is that
>   on equal protection grounds if marriage is good for all people then
> all people should be allowed to participate in the way they can; gay
> people   cannot be expected to marry straight people so they should be
> able to marry other gay people.  But, this argument would not work for
> and "incest" marriage.  We have no reason to believe that a straight
> adult male can *only* marry his sister; he might want to marry her, but
> that would be a different issue.  Similarly, this arguent would cut
> against polygamy; there is no evidence that the benefit of marriage is
> possible *only* if a straight man has three wives; or a straight women
> had three husbands.  There may be 1st amndment arguments for allowing
> polygamy, but that is a different argument.
>
> Amar D. Sarwal wrote:
> > Does your analysis (in your POV) apply with equal force to the
transgendered
> > and adult incest situations?  If not, why not?
> >
> > - Original Message - 
> > From: "Paul Finkelman" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
> > To: <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
> > Cc: "'Law & Religion issues for Law Academics'"
<[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
> > Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 3:07 PM
> > Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question
> >
> >
> >
> >>We are actually not entirely talking by each other; you just are
> >>uninterested in the possibility that allowing same sex marriage might
> >>improve the lives of gay people; you make a very good point that
> >>marriage improves life; You are just unwilling to give that opportunity
> >>to all Americans.  Instead, you fall back on the argument that there is
> >>no proof same sex marriage is good for people so therefore we should
> >>never allow it.   In the context of this list I would suggest you ponder
> >>the concept of "doing unto others" and ask yourself the simple question:
> >>  if some gay people might benefit from the right marry, should we not
> >>give them that right?  If most do not benefit from it, what harm will
> >>have been done?
> >>
> >>Gene Summerlin wrote:
> >>
> >>>Paul,
> >>>
> >>>I think we are talking past each other here, so I will leave it at
this:
> >>>the statistics don't show that "marriage" improves the quality of life,
> >>
> > but
> >
> >>>that "heterosexual marriage" improves the quality of life.  The limited
> >>>statistics that we do have concerning same-sex marriage indicates that
> >>
> > it
> >
> >>>will not provide these same benefits.  The proponents of such a major
> >>
> > change
> >
> >>>in social policy should, in my opinion, provide more justification than
> >>>"let's try this experiment and see what happens."
> >>>
> >>>Gene Summerlin
> >>>Ogborn Summerlin & Ogborn P.C.
> >>>210 Windsor Place
> >>>330 So. 10th St.
> >>>Lincoln, NE  68508
> >>>(402) 434-8040
> >>>(402) 434-8044 (FAX)
> >>>(402) 730-5344 (Mobile)
> >>>www.osolaw.com
> >>>[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> >>>
> >>>
> >>>-Original Message-
> >>>From: Paul Finkelman [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> >>>Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 1:37 PM
> >>>To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> >>>Cc: 'Law & Religion issues for Law Academics'
> >>>Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question
> >>>
> >>>
> >>>this only shows that the exeperiment is not working as well as opposite
> >>>sex marriage (but you don't offer number on those marriage in Holland);
> >>>neverhteless if the statistics show that marraige improves life then
all
> >>>people should be allowed to be married.  If the succdess rate of gay
> >>>marriage is half that of straight marriage, that woulc certainly be a
> >>>benefit to those who are in it; and in any event you offer no
statistics
> >>>on same sex marriage for women;  what happens if we get numbers which
> >>>show that same sex marriages for women last *longer* that opposite sex
> >>>maraige in the US.  Would that be an argument for banning opposite-sex
> >>>mrrriage because it is not as successful as women in same sex marriage?
> >>>
> >>>Gene Summerlin wrote:
> >>>
> >>>
> Paul,
> 
> You have to consider the statistical argument within the context of
what
> >>>
> >>>it
> >>>
> >>>
> measures, so if the measurement is based on 

Re: Religion Clauses question

2004-06-04 Thread Paul Finkelman
but that is like believing the earth is flat, and even in good faith, 
that would not be a pssing answer on a science test!

Amar D. Sarwal wrote:
Following your reasoning below, if one believes (in good faith) that
homosexual orientation/proclivity to homosexual conduct is not immutable,
then that person would not be akin to segregationists, et al.  Right?
- Original Message - 
From: "Paul Finkelman" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: "Amar D. Sarwal" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Cc: "Law & Religion issues for Law Academics" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 3:41 PM
Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question


I do not know enough about transgendered relationships to comment; as
for "incest" -- my first thought is that unlike gay people, it would be
hard to argue that adults can only marry close family members. Part of
my arguemnt is that Mr. Summerlin makes a strong case that marriage is
good for people -- he wants to narow this to straight people but with
not much evidence that gay people cannot also benefit.  My point is that
 on equal protection grounds if marriage is good for all people then
all people should be allowed to participate in the way they can; gay
people   cannot be expected to marry straight people so they should be
able to marry other gay people.  But, this argument would not work for
and "incest" marriage.  We have no reason to believe that a straight
adult male can *only* marry his sister; he might want to marry her, but
that would be a different issue.  Similarly, this arguent would cut
against polygamy; there is no evidence that the benefit of marriage is
possible *only* if a straight man has three wives; or a straight women
had three husbands.  There may be 1st amndment arguments for allowing
polygamy, but that is a different argument.
Amar D. Sarwal wrote:
Does your analysis (in your POV) apply with equal force to the

transgendered
and adult incest situations?  If not, why not?
- Original Message - 
From: "Paul Finkelman" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Cc: "'Law & Religion issues for Law Academics'"

<[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 3:07 PM
Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question


We are actually not entirely talking by each other; you just are
uninterested in the possibility that allowing same sex marriage might
improve the lives of gay people; you make a very good point that
marriage improves life; You are just unwilling to give that opportunity
to all Americans.  Instead, you fall back on the argument that there is
no proof same sex marriage is good for people so therefore we should
never allow it.   In the context of this list I would suggest you ponder
the concept of "doing unto others" and ask yourself the simple question:
if some gay people might benefit from the right marry, should we not
give them that right?  If most do not benefit from it, what harm will
have been done?
Gene Summerlin wrote:

Paul,
I think we are talking past each other here, so I will leave it at

this:
the statistics don't show that "marriage" improves the quality of life,

but

that "heterosexual marriage" improves the quality of life.  The limited
statistics that we do have concerning same-sex marriage indicates that

it

will not provide these same benefits.  The proponents of such a major

change

in social policy should, in my opinion, provide more justification than
"let's try this experiment and see what happens."
Gene Summerlin
Ogborn Summerlin & Ogborn P.C.
210 Windsor Place
330 So. 10th St.
Lincoln, NE  68508
(402) 434-8040
(402) 434-8044 (FAX)
(402) 730-5344 (Mobile)
www.osolaw.com
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
-Original Message-
From: Paul Finkelman [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 1:37 PM
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Cc: 'Law & Religion issues for Law Academics'
Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question
this only shows that the exeperiment is not working as well as opposite
sex marriage (but you don't offer number on those marriage in Holland);
neverhteless if the statistics show that marraige improves life then

all
people should be allowed to be married.  If the succdess rate of gay
marriage is half that of straight marriage, that woulc certainly be a
benefit to those who are in it; and in any event you offer no

statistics
on same sex marriage for women;  what happens if we get numbers which
show that same sex marriages for women last *longer* that opposite sex
maraige in the US.  Would that be an argument for banning opposite-sex
mrrriage because it is not as successful as women in same sex marriage?
Gene Summerlin wrote:

Paul,
You have to consider the statistical argument within the context of

what
it

measures, so if the measurement is based on heterosexual marriages, we
aren't free to remove the term "heterosexual" and say, "See, all

marriage

of

every type creates these benefits."  That is an intellectually

dishonest
use

of statistics.  (Please understand, I am not saying you are being
intellectually dishonest, merely that arguing fr

RE: Religion Clauses question

2004-06-04 Thread Eastman, John
Paul,

With all due respect, your are stating a conclusion without providing
any evidentiary support.  What scientific studies do you believe support
your conclusion to such a degree of certainty as to warrant your
comparison of the opposing view to flat-earthers?

John Eastman



Dr. John C. Eastman
Professor of Law, Chapman University School of Law
Director, The Claremont Institute Center for Constitutional
Jurisprudence
One University Dr.
Orange, CA 92866
(714) 628-2587
 


-Original Message-
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Paul Finkelman
Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 1:03 PM
To: Amar D. Sarwal
Cc: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question

but that is like believing the earth is flat, and even in good faith, 
that would not be a pssing answer on a science test!

Amar D. Sarwal wrote:
> Following your reasoning below, if one believes (in good faith) that
> homosexual orientation/proclivity to homosexual conduct is not
immutable,
> then that person would not be akin to segregationists, et al.  Right?
> 
> - Original Message - 
> From: "Paul Finkelman" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
> To: "Amar D. Sarwal" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
> Cc: "Law & Religion issues for Law Academics"
<[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
> Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 3:41 PM
> Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question
> 
> 
> 
>>I do not know enough about transgendered relationships to comment; as
>>for "incest" -- my first thought is that unlike gay people, it would
be
>>hard to argue that adults can only marry close family members. Part of
>>my arguemnt is that Mr. Summerlin makes a strong case that marriage is
>>good for people -- he wants to narow this to straight people but with
>>not much evidence that gay people cannot also benefit.  My point is
that
>>  on equal protection grounds if marriage is good for all people then
>>all people should be allowed to participate in the way they can; gay
>>people   cannot be expected to marry straight people so they should be
>>able to marry other gay people.  But, this argument would not work for
>>and "incest" marriage.  We have no reason to believe that a straight
>>adult male can *only* marry his sister; he might want to marry her,
but
>>that would be a different issue.  Similarly, this arguent would cut
>>against polygamy; there is no evidence that the benefit of marriage is
>>possible *only* if a straight man has three wives; or a straight women
>>had three husbands.  There may be 1st amndment arguments for allowing
>>polygamy, but that is a different argument.
>>
>>Amar D. Sarwal wrote:
>>
>>>Does your analysis (in your POV) apply with equal force to the
>>
> transgendered
> 
>>>and adult incest situations?  If not, why not?
>>>
>>>- Original Message - 
>>>From: "Paul Finkelman" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
>>>To: <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
>>>Cc: "'Law & Religion issues for Law Academics'"
>>
> <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
> 
>>>Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 3:07 PM
>>>Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
We are actually not entirely talking by each other; you just are
uninterested in the possibility that allowing same sex marriage
might
improve the lives of gay people; you make a very good point that
marriage improves life; You are just unwilling to give that
opportunity
to all Americans.  Instead, you fall back on the argument that there
is
no proof same sex marriage is good for people so therefore we should
never allow it.   In the context of this list I would suggest you
ponder
the concept of "doing unto others" and ask yourself the simple
question:
 if some gay people might benefit from the right marry, should we
not
give them that right?  If most do not benefit from it, what harm
will
have been done?

Gene Summerlin wrote:


>Paul,
>
>I think we are talking past each other here, so I will leave it at

> this:
> 
>the statistics don't show that "marriage" improves the quality of
life,

>>>but
>>>
>>>
>that "heterosexual marriage" improves the quality of life.  The
limited
>statistics that we do have concerning same-sex marriage indicates
that

>>>it
>>>
>>>
>will not provide these same benefits.  The proponents of such a
major

>>>change
>>>
>>>
>in social policy should, in my opinion, provide more justification
than
>"let's try this experiment and see what happens."
>
>Gene Summerlin
>Ogborn Summerlin & Ogborn P.C.
>210 Windsor Place
>330 So. 10th St.
>Lincoln, NE  68508
>(402) 434-8040
>(402) 434-8044 (FAX)
>(402) 730-5344 (Mobile)
>www.osolaw.com
>[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>
>
>-Original Message-
>From: Paul Finkelman [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 1:37 PM
>To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
>Cc: 'Law & Religion issues for Law Academics'
>Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question
>
>
>this only shows that the exeperiment i

Re: Religion Clauses question

2004-06-04 Thread Paul Finkelman
what evidence do you have that people in this homophobic and oppressive 
society choose to be gay, facing discrimination and inability to marry 
or in other ways live their life as other people do?  Are you arguing 
that being gay is a choice, like voting Republican or choosing to go to 
college?  I would urge you to talk to some gay people and read about 
their lives.

Eastman, John wrote:
Paul,
With all due respect, your are stating a conclusion without providing
any evidentiary support.  What scientific studies do you believe support
your conclusion to such a degree of certainty as to warrant your
comparison of the opposing view to flat-earthers?
John Eastman

Dr. John C. Eastman
Professor of Law, Chapman University School of Law
Director, The Claremont Institute Center for Constitutional
Jurisprudence
One University Dr.
Orange, CA 92866
(714) 628-2587
 

-Original Message-
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Paul Finkelman
Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 1:03 PM
To: Amar D. Sarwal
Cc: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question
but that is like believing the earth is flat, and even in good faith, 
that would not be a pssing answer on a science test!

Amar D. Sarwal wrote:
Following your reasoning below, if one believes (in good faith) that
homosexual orientation/proclivity to homosexual conduct is not
immutable,
then that person would not be akin to segregationists, et al.  Right?
- Original Message - 
From: "Paul Finkelman" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: "Amar D. Sarwal" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Cc: "Law & Religion issues for Law Academics"
<[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 3:41 PM
Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question


I do not know enough about transgendered relationships to comment; as
for "incest" -- my first thought is that unlike gay people, it would

be
hard to argue that adults can only marry close family members. Part of
my arguemnt is that Mr. Summerlin makes a strong case that marriage is
good for people -- he wants to narow this to straight people but with
not much evidence that gay people cannot also benefit.  My point is

that
on equal protection grounds if marriage is good for all people then
all people should be allowed to participate in the way they can; gay
people   cannot be expected to marry straight people so they should be
able to marry other gay people.  But, this argument would not work for
and "incest" marriage.  We have no reason to believe that a straight
adult male can *only* marry his sister; he might want to marry her,

but
that would be a different issue.  Similarly, this arguent would cut
against polygamy; there is no evidence that the benefit of marriage is
possible *only* if a straight man has three wives; or a straight women
had three husbands.  There may be 1st amndment arguments for allowing
polygamy, but that is a different argument.
Amar D. Sarwal wrote:

Does your analysis (in your POV) apply with equal force to the

transgendered

and adult incest situations?  If not, why not?
- Original Message - 
From: "Paul Finkelman" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Cc: "'Law & Religion issues for Law Academics'"

<[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 3:07 PM
Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question


We are actually not entirely talking by each other; you just are
uninterested in the possibility that allowing same sex marriage

might
improve the lives of gay people; you make a very good point that
marriage improves life; You are just unwilling to give that

opportunity
to all Americans.  Instead, you fall back on the argument that there

is
no proof same sex marriage is good for people so therefore we should
never allow it.   In the context of this list I would suggest you

ponder
the concept of "doing unto others" and ask yourself the simple

question:
if some gay people might benefit from the right marry, should we

not
give them that right?  If most do not benefit from it, what harm

will
have been done?
Gene Summerlin wrote:

Paul,
I think we are talking past each other here, so I will leave it at

this:

the statistics don't show that "marriage" improves the quality of

life,
but

that "heterosexual marriage" improves the quality of life.  The

limited
statistics that we do have concerning same-sex marriage indicates

that
it

will not provide these same benefits.  The proponents of such a

major
change

in social policy should, in my opinion, provide more justification

than
"let's try this experiment and see what happens."
Gene Summerlin
Ogborn Summerlin & Ogborn P.C.
210 Windsor Place
330 So. 10th St.
Lincoln, NE  68508
(402) 434-8040
(402) 434-8044 (FAX)
(402) 730-5344 (Mobile)
www.osolaw.com
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
-Original Message-
From: Paul Finkelman [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 1:37 PM
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Cc: 'Law & Religion issues for Law Academics'
Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question
this only shows that the exeperiment i

RE: Religion Clauses question

2004-06-04 Thread Eastman, John
Hmm.  Since when does the ad hominem pass for science, Paul?

You made a specific contention earlier--that the science on this was so
clear as to not warrant discussion.  You added to that below with the
comparison of those who would hold otherwise to flat-earthers.  All I
asked was for a single citation to back up your claims, a single study
that actually demonstrates what you think to be irrefutable.  I don't
think it exists, but I would genuinely like to know of this "science" if
you can point me to it.

John

  

-Original Message-
From: Paul Finkelman [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] 
Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 1:20 PM
To: Eastman, John
Cc: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics; Amar D. Sarwal
Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question

what evidence do you have that people in this homophobic and oppressive 
society choose to be gay, facing discrimination and inability to marry 
or in other ways live their life as other people do?  Are you arguing 
that being gay is a choice, like voting Republican or choosing to go to 
college?  I would urge you to talk to some gay people and read about 
their lives.

Eastman, John wrote:
> Paul,
> 
> With all due respect, your are stating a conclusion without providing
> any evidentiary support.  What scientific studies do you believe
support
> your conclusion to such a degree of certainty as to warrant your
> comparison of the opposing view to flat-earthers?
> 
> John Eastman
> 
> 
> 
> Dr. John C. Eastman
> Professor of Law, Chapman University School of Law
> Director, The Claremont Institute Center for Constitutional
> Jurisprudence
> One University Dr.
> Orange, CA 92866
> (714) 628-2587
>  
> 
> 
> -Original Message-
> From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Paul
Finkelman
> Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 1:03 PM
> To: Amar D. Sarwal
> Cc: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
> Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question
> 
> but that is like believing the earth is flat, and even in good faith, 
> that would not be a pssing answer on a science test!
> 
> Amar D. Sarwal wrote:
> 
>>Following your reasoning below, if one believes (in good faith) that
>>homosexual orientation/proclivity to homosexual conduct is not
> 
> immutable,
> 
>>then that person would not be akin to segregationists, et al.  Right?
>>

___
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RE: Religion Clauses question

2004-06-04 Thread A.E. Brownstein
I think Gene is right. You both are talking past each other. Unfortunately, 
it is hard for discussions on this subject to move beyond that. I certainly 
haven't figured out how to avoid that result -- which is the reason I don't 
participate in this kind of a discussion on the list. If I had the time, I 
might try to engage Gene or others off list to see if longer and more 
detailed posts could somehow bridge the gap. But I don't -- and I'm not 
sure longer, less public discourse would necessarily make a difference.

With all due respect to both Paul and Gene, I don't think these relatively 
short tit for tat posts get us anywhere.

For my own edification, has anyone who strongly supports same-sex marriage 
read anything that makes the case for opposing same-sex marriage in a way 
that gives them pause, that challenges them, and makes them re-evaluate 
their own position -- even if they ultimately end up holding the same 
position. And has anyone who opposes same-sex marriage read anything that 
makes the case for supporting same-sex marriage in a way that gives them 
pause, that challenges them, and makes them re-evaluate their own position 
-- even if they ultimately end up holding the same position.

I'd like to read what people on each side of this debate find persuasive in 
the arguments on the other side -- assuming that anything does.

Alan Brownstein
UC Davis


At 01:56 PM 6/4/2004 -0500, you wrote:
Paul,
I think we are talking past each other here, so I will leave it at this:
the statistics don't show that "marriage" improves the quality of life, but
that "heterosexual marriage" improves the quality of life.  The limited
statistics that we do have concerning same-sex marriage indicates that it
will not provide these same benefits.  The proponents of such a major change
in social policy should, in my opinion, provide more justification than
"let's try this experiment and see what happens."
Gene Summerlin
Ogborn Summerlin & Ogborn P.C.
210 Windsor Place
330 So. 10th St.
Lincoln, NE  68508
(402) 434-8040
(402) 434-8044 (FAX)
(402) 730-5344 (Mobile)
www.osolaw.com
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
-Original Message-
From: Paul Finkelman [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 1:37 PM
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Cc: 'Law & Religion issues for Law Academics'
Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question
this only shows that the exeperiment is not working as well as opposite
sex marriage (but you don't offer number on those marriage in Holland);
neverhteless if the statistics show that marraige improves life then all
people should be allowed to be married.  If the succdess rate of gay
marriage is half that of straight marriage, that woulc certainly be a
benefit to those who are in it; and in any event you offer no statistics
on same sex marriage for women;  what happens if we get numbers which
show that same sex marriages for women last *longer* that opposite sex
maraige in the US.  Would that be an argument for banning opposite-sex
mrrriage because it is not as successful as women in same sex marriage?
Gene Summerlin wrote:
> Paul,
>
> You have to consider the statistical argument within the context of what
it
> measures, so if the measurement is based on heterosexual marriages, we
> aren't free to remove the term "heterosexual" and say, "See, all marriage
of
> every type creates these benefits."  That is an intellectually dishonest
use
> of statistics.  (Please understand, I am not saying you are being
> intellectually dishonest, merely that arguing from statistics in that way
> would be).
>
> Paul is correct that we lack the breadth of data regarding same sex
> marriages that we have concerning heterosexual marriage, but the data we
do
> have indicates that the benefits to society we gain from heterosexual
> marriage would not be generated from same sex marriage.  A recent study
from
> the Netherlands, where same-sex marriage is legal, reports male homosexual
> relationships last, on average, 1.5 years, and gay men have an average of
> eight partners a year outside of their "committed" relationships.  Maria
> Xiridou, et al., "The Contributions of Steady and Casual Partnerships to
the
> Incidence of HIV Infection Among Homosexual Men in Amsterdam," AIDS, 17
> (2003): 1029.38.  Contrast that with the fact that 67 percent of first
> marriages in the United States last 10 years, and more than three quarters
> of heterosexual married couples report no sexual partners other than their
> spouse.
>
> To refocus the discussion on the law aspects of this list, it appears to
me
> that a strong argument can be made that the government is justified in
> withholding the legal benefits of marriage, that is the incentive to
marry,
> from any family arrangement other than heterosexual marriage.
>
> Gene Summerlin
> Ogborn Summerlin & Ogborn P.C.
> 210 Windsor Place
> 330 So. 10th St.
> Lincoln, NE  68508
> (402) 434-8040
> (402) 434-8044 (FAX)
> (402) 730-5344 (Mobile)
> www.osolaw.com
> [EMAIL PROTECTED]
>
>
> -Origin

Re: New religious speech at school controversy

2004-06-04 Thread Michael MASINTER
But see Holloman v. Harland, 2004 WL 1178465 (11th Cir. May 28, 2004)
denying qualified immunity to a teacher who disciplined a student for
silently raising a fist during the pledge of allegiance and concluding
that the allegation, if proved, would establish a violation of the first
amendment.

Michael R. Masinter 3305 College Avenue
Nova Southeastern UniversityFort Lauderdale, Fl. 33314
Shepard Broad Law Center(954) 262-6151
[EMAIL PROTECTED]   Chair, ACLU of Florida Legal Panel

On Fri, 4 Jun 2004 [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

> Well, if the situation had arisen here in the heart of Dixie (not Alabama but 
> south Georgia), it likely the Eleventh Circuit would uphold the suspension 
> relying on its decisions in a pair of Confederate flag cases. In Denno v. School 
> Bd. of Volusia County  and  Scott v. School Bd. of Alachua County, it found 
> that potential offensiveness is sufficient for school officials to restrict 
> students' speech (restrict as in disciplinary suspension).  
> 
> Frances R. A. Paterson, J.D., Ed.D.
> Associate Professor (school law)
> Department of Educational Leadership
> Valdosta State University
> Valdosta, GA 31698
> 


___
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Re: Religion Clauses question

2004-06-04 Thread Francis Beckwith
I don't think anyone who is a serious student of this subject would claim
that homosexuality is a matter of "choice" or even a matter of "genes."
This, I believe, is a false dilemma.  It's probably a lot more complicated
than this.  I've read a little on this subject, and it seems to me that
there is a genetic component to homosexuality as there with "basketball
ability," but it requires life experiences and practice to hone those native
predispositions.  But I  suspect this is true of other habits and
inclinations, everything from having a sweet tooth to being proficient on
the violin.

Come to think of it, it's probably not accurate to refer to "religious
belief" as a choice in any hard and fast way. Sure, people convert, but
conversions are oftentimes a consequence of a long sequence of experiences
in which a person slowly comes to realize a particular theological point of
view is correct.  I, for example, cannot unbelieve at will.  If it were
merely a matter of choice, I would be able to unbelieve like I would be able
to pick a different cereal to eat in the morning.  But unbelieving is nearly
impossible, since my beliefs are part of my epistemic structure and, in some
ways, inform my knowledge about a whole host of other things.  For sure, I
can probably lose some beliefs over time, or at least lose confidence in
them. But it does not seem like a matter of bare choice.

Frank


On 6/4/04 3:20 PM, "Paul Finkelman" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:

> what evidence do you have that people in this homophobic and oppressive
> society choose to be gay, facing discrimination and inability to marry
> or in other ways live their life as other people do?  Are you arguing
> that being gay is a choice, like voting Republican or choosing to go to
> college?  I would urge you to talk to some gay people and read about
> their lives.
> 
> Eastman, John wrote:
>> Paul,
>> 
>> With all due respect, your are stating a conclusion without providing
>> any evidentiary support.  What scientific studies do you believe support
>> your conclusion to such a degree of certainty as to warrant your
>> comparison of the opposing view to flat-earthers?
>> 
>> John Eastman
>> 
>> 
>> 
>> Dr. John C. Eastman
>> Professor of Law, Chapman University School of Law
>> Director, The Claremont Institute Center for Constitutional
>> Jurisprudence
>> One University Dr.
>> Orange, CA 92866
>> (714) 628-2587
>>  
>> 
>> 
>> -Original Message-
>> From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
>> [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Paul Finkelman
>> Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 1:03 PM
>> To: Amar D. Sarwal
>> Cc: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
>> Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question
>> 
>> but that is like believing the earth is flat, and even in good faith,
>> that would not be a pssing answer on a science test!
>> 
>> Amar D. Sarwal wrote:
>> 
>>> Following your reasoning below, if one believes (in good faith) that
>>> homosexual orientation/proclivity to homosexual conduct is not
>> 
>> immutable,
>> 
>>> then that person would not be akin to segregationists, et al.  Right?
>>> 
>>> - Original Message -
>>> From: "Paul Finkelman" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
>>> To: "Amar D. Sarwal" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
>>> Cc: "Law & Religion issues for Law Academics"
>> 
>> <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
>> 
>>> Sent: Friday, June 04, 2004 3:41 PM
>>> Subject: Re: Religion Clauses question
>>> 
>>> 
>>> 
>>> 
 I do not know enough about transgendered relationships to comment; as
 for "incest" -- my first thought is that unlike gay people, it would
>>> 
>> be
>> 
 hard to argue that adults can only marry close family members. Part of
 my arguemnt is that Mr. Summerlin makes a strong case that marriage is
 good for people -- he wants to narow this to straight people but with
 not much evidence that gay people cannot also benefit.  My point is
>>> 
>> that
>> 
 on equal protection grounds if marriage is good for all people then
 all people should be allowed to participate in the way they can; gay
 people   cannot be expected to marry straight people so they should be
 able to marry other gay people.  But, this argument would not work for
 and "incest" marriage.  We have no reason to believe that a straight
 adult male can *only* marry his sister; he might want to marry her,
>>> 
>> but
>> 
 that would be a different issue.  Similarly, this arguent would cut
 against polygamy; there is no evidence that the benefit of marriage is
 possible *only* if a straight man has three wives; or a straight women
 had three husbands.  There may be 1st amndment arguments for allowing
 polygamy, but that is a different argument.
 
 Amar D. Sarwal wrote:
 
 
> Does your analysis (in your POV) apply with equal force to the
 
>>> transgendered
>>> 
>>> 
> and adult incest situations?  If not, why not?
> 
> - Original Message -
> From: "Paul Finkelman" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
> To: <[EMA