See RFC 3264, Section 5.1 concerning the use of the address and port in the offer.
You can set the port to be zero in the offer, but it really only seems to be allowed for purposes of syntactic completeness and the semantics are not clearly defined. You should not assume that the answerer will send an immediate BYE request if all m= lines in the offer have their ports set to zero. As to your final question: yes, it's feasible. No, it doesn't make sense to do it. Of course, that's just my opinion. - g On 10/7/06, chozhan A <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > > Hi all, > > can the port number in "m=" line be zero in offer. > If yes can all "m=" lines have 0 as port number > If this is also allowed can i assume that the answerer will generate > BYE immidiately after sending answer. > > i want to know from the point of view that whether RFC restrict(fesiable > or not) and not as whether it makes sense or not. > > Thanks in advance. > regards, > AC > > > > --------------------------------- > Find out what India is talking about on - Yahoo! Answers India > Send FREE SMS to your friend's mobile from Yahoo! Messenger Version 8. Get > it NOW > _______________________________________________ > Sip-implementors mailing list > [email protected] > https://lists.cs.columbia.edu/cucslists/listinfo/sip-implementors > _______________________________________________ Sip-implementors mailing list [email protected] https://lists.cs.columbia.edu/cucslists/listinfo/sip-implementors
