The difficulty in untangling the disagreements between these 
two is that they agree on so much, and in a way after the 
point of disagreement they retain a family resemblance.

They agree:
- the importance of money is to permit expression of effective demand
- most money in a monetary-production economy is credit-money held 
as deposits in the banking system
- there can be fundamental problems with effective demand in 
monetary-production economies under current financial institutions


Here is, I think, a scenario that highlights the fundamental 
dispute, as near as I can see it.

Consider the operation of a stable economy through a production 
period -- say, a quarter.  There is a pool of savings, but there 
is NO net savings or dissavings in the quarter ... say, short 
term overdrafts are permitted, but they must be made good out of 
income, whether earned or borrowed from someone else.

Now, all explicit costs of each firm are either earned income 
at the firm or payments to other firms.  And then at these firms, 
they are split between earned income at THOSE firms or payments 
to other firms.  If we get back to payments made near the beginning 
of the period for work performed in the previous period, these are 
roughly equal to work done toward the end of this period that 
will be paid for near the beginning of the next, so in the end, 
all costs can be resolved as income earned.

Now, we could make the argument that part of the costs have 
already been received as income and spent in the previous income, 
but that would be a sliding window fallacy if we do not also 
recognise that this means that some money will be received as 
income this period that will not be resolved as costs of final 
production until the next period.  If we let this economy 
begin growing, we will obviously be in an imbalanced position, 
but here the overall agreement between SC and the GT that something 
would be out of whack will get in the way, hence the stable 
economy assumption.

Now, if I understand the argumnent correctly, unless there 
is a profit over and above this explicit cost, the producer 
will decline to continue production, and since incomes have 
been provided as costs, and prices must excess costs, then 
the incomes receieved will be insufficient to pay the price 
required for the product, unless there is recourse to new 
purchasing power.  We have been assuming no net saving, and 
so lets add the assumption of no net credit.  SC says that 
things must start winding down, and will keep on winding 
down.

This is where I cannot see it.  The profits are also income. 
The assumption of no net savings means that there is no 
net retained earnings.  That means profits are distributed, 
and spent.  So the costs plus profits provides the effective 
demand to pay for the price of the production, and the role 
of the stock of savings is just to act as a lubricant to 
exchange.

In General Theory reasoning, this is a model of a monetary 
exchange economy.  The reason is that in order to permit 
firms to use money to gain control over the means of production, 
there must be net credit.  No net savings in the face of net 
credit will lead to the OPPOSITE of the SC A+B argument: more 
effective demand than the total price of the produce.  A 
monetary-production economy is therefore incompatible with 
no net savings, and financial institutions must exist that 
permit income to be received but not directed to spending.

The problem with effective demand, from the GT reasoning, is 
that once a given level of effective demand is generated from 
OUTSIDE the income-expenditure loop, then income will stabilise 
at a level that permits an equal amount to be HELD as saving. 
Specifically, as income is injected, it passes to a firm, 
where it is saving until it is disbursed, and etc. if it 
is disbured to another firm, while if it is disbursed as 
income it is saving until it is used to finance expenditure, 
at which point is is received at a firm ... AND SO ON AND 
SO ON ... until someone receives it and is able and willing 
to hold it as saving.

Hence the argument that exogenous demand and propensity 
to consume determine the level of effective demand, and 
this may easily be at a level that does not result in 
the full productive capabilities of the economy being 
brought to work.

So that is, as far as I can tell, the core of the dispute.

Income = Cost
Cost+Profit = Price x Quantity, ergo Income < Price x Quantity

versus

Cost is Income, Profit is Income
Cost+Profit = Price x Quantity, ergo Income = Price x Quantity

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