Wouldn't that mean that the ISP would have to define the vlans on their end? That wouldn't be an option.
On Mon, Aug 17, 2009 at 5:43 PM, Victor Padro <vpa...@gmail.com> wrote: > On Mon, Aug 17, 2009 at 4:33 PM, Jesse Vollmar<vollm...@gmail.com> wrote: > > Hey guys, > > after googling this for a while, I'm not finding any clear instructions > for > > doing this. I currently have a multi-wan scenario with failover > configured. > > I just purchased another static IP block from one of the ISPs and they > are > > now routing those to me (so they say). I would like to use this new > subnet > > in concurrence with my old subnet, both on the same interface (OPT1). The > > subnets do not share the same gateway. What is the proper way to > configure > > this? > > Thanks, > > Jesse > > > > > > Use VLANs? > > -- > Linux User #452368 > Ubuntu User #28025 > http://twitter.com/vpadro > > Manifiesto por una cultura libre: > http://culturalibre.org/ > > "Doing a thing well is often a waste of time." > > --------------------------------------------------------------------- > To unsubscribe, e-mail: support-unsubscr...@pfsense.com > For additional commands, e-mail: support-h...@pfsense.com > > Commercial support available - https://portal.pfsense.org > >
