On Tue, 16 Dec 2008, Peter Miller wrote: > google are saying is that if one places a layer of OS data on top of google > data then google don't claim ownership of that data
Is this actually different to the OS's rules? My take on the OS's complaint was that the councils' data was actually derived from the OS data, not just overlaid. i.e. if they want to plot the location of a public toilet, they would know that the toilet is on the corner of roads A and B, so would use the OS layer to find roads A and B and place their marker on the corner. Thus the "toilets" marker is derived from the OS data because they used the OS's data about the roads to geolocate it. I had assumed that if the council actually had lat/lon coordinates for the toilets then there would be no licensing problem since they would never need to use the OS data to geolocate the marker (even though they may be displaying the marker on an OS map for the end-user). Or have I misinterpretted the OS's complaint? - Steve xmpp:st...@nexusuk.org sip:st...@nexusuk.org http://www.nexusuk.org/ Servatis a periculum, servatis a maleficum - Whisper, Evanescence _______________________________________________ Talk-GB mailing list Talk-GB@openstreetmap.org http://lists.openstreetmap.org/listinfo/talk-gb