Yes, I agree, but isn't it true that it isn't an absolute requirement that the CS occurs before the US, it's just that conditioning proceeds more slowly when that requirement isn't met? Carol
Carol DeVolder, Ph.D. Professor of Psychology Chair, Department of Psychology St. Ambrose University Davenport, Iowa 52803 phone: 563-333-6482 e-mail: [EMAIL PROTECTED] -----Original Message----- From: Rick Froman [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] Sent: Wednesday, October 05, 2005 11:32 AM To: Teaching in the Psychological Sciences Subject: RE: classical conditioning of nausea Thank you for your response, Carol. What you say makes sense with the higher order conditioning part but, usually, a CS is supposed to occur before and predict a US. As you describe it, the smell of vomit (CS) would not be predicting the illness (UCS). In fact, the smell of vomit might actually predict a feeling of relief from illness. Rick Dr. Rick Froman Professor of Psychology John Brown University 2000 W. University Siloam Springs, AR 72761 [EMAIL PROTECTED] (479) 524-7295 http://www.jbu.edu/academics/sbs/faculty/rfroman.asp -----Original Message----- From: DeVolder Carol L [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] Sent: Wednesday, October 05, 2005 11:21 AM To: Teaching in the Psychological Sciences Subject: RE: classical conditioning of nausea Isn't this an example of higher order conditioning in which the CR is transferred from one CS to another? In other words, being ill (the US) evokes vomiting (the UR). The smell of vomit becomes the CS and nausea is the resulting CR. Then, when the smell of vomit (the first-order CS) is paired with a second order CS--the smell of wood chips--and evokes the CR of nausea (which is now a second-order association). I haven't thought about this stuff in a long time, so I could be way off base, but that's what it seems like to me. Carol -----Original Message----- From: Rick Froman [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] Sent: Wednesday, October 05, 2005 11:06 AM To: Teaching in the Psychological Sciences Subject: RE: classical conditioning of nausea Paul Brandon wrote: "Its special nature is demonstrated by the fact that all stimuli present during ingestion do not become CS's; just the taste/smell of the food. You don't usually acquire an aversion to the person you ate the food with." But in this case the smell of the wood chips has become a CS. Isn't that unusual for a taste aversion? If this were similar to a taste aversion, he would smell the wood, get physically ill and then get ill whenever he smelled wood chips again. He was not the one who originally got sick. He only made the connection between the two smells at school. --- You are currently subscribed to tips as: archive@jab.org To unsubscribe send a blank email to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
