The expansion of the ministry (to the
Gentiles) is first given to Peter in a vision sometime after
the cross.
Peter
was sent to the house of Cornelius who was a worshipper who gave alms
and who God knew about. However
God was never completely exclusive and Jesus confronted the
Jews with the fact that God passed over a lot of widows in Israel and
Elijah was sent to one in the city of Sidon; also there were many lepers
in Israel and Elijah healed Naaman a Syrian, (because the Jews were
covenant breakers) which made the Jews so angry they wanted to push him
off the brow of a hill.
No kidding
-------- but that does not change the fact of His
(Chrsit) statement that His ministry was one to the Jew and not the
Gentile AND
JESUS SAID, I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF ISRAEL MATT 10:24. Deal with it.
I'm trying - Matt 10:24 says "A
disciple is not above his teacher, nor a servant above his master" - did
you mean to include that? and Mark 10:24 is about how hard it is for those
who have riches to enter the Kingdom.
`
When Jesus sends his 12 out on
mission, they are sent to the Jews and "not to the Gentiles
) Matt 10:5,6.
Lost sheep (covenant
breakers) of the house of Israel.
No kidding.
Are you being patronizing
JD?
In Matt 15:24, Christ tells us that
His mission is to the Jews and not to anyone
else."
He said healing was
the children's bread (children of the covenant) but did he or did he not
heal the woman's daughter?
HE SAID I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST
SHEEP OF ISRAEL.
He said that but he healed the
daughter of a Syrian woman because of her faith and the Jews rejected Him
because of their unbelief.... so God is not as legalistic and locked in
about this as you are it seems.
Why? How can this be? Because
of John 4:7 -- "salvation is of the Jews."
Only because God's oracles
were entrusted to them preserved by them for the rest of us; salvation is
FOR whosoever will come.
Of course and why are arguing with me
about this, again?
Because you make it sound as
though you have a Jew fixation or something of that
sort.
When Christ speaks of the "few there be" who
will accept the salvation offered to them,
He is speaking to the Jews and of the Jews.
No His Words are
for every generation even for those who are far off. As many as
God the Father sends Him.
Read the parable of
the sower JD. The field is the world.
I don't know if I have used the word
"exclusive" in anything I have written. If I have, that was a
mistake.
That does not change the fact that He
came to the Jew only His words not mine.
For the first 3
1/2yrs of His ministry but His Words are eternal, they will judge us
in the last day (Jn 12:48) and they are not for Jews only because in Him
there is no Jew, Greek, bond, or free.
Does He intend to included all of mankind?
Absolutely -- and He does.
Glad he has your permission
JD
this is all you have to say in making
your point and you wonder why I see rebellion and stubbornness
in you, Judy.
But there is a politic to
this inclusion that began with Adam and came down to the world through
Israel.
God is
not and never has been political; He is Sovereign Lord over all
mankind.
What ?? !! Do you think I am
accusing Him of running for mayor ??!!!
But, o.k., I will use a different
word - PROCESS.
The picture of the uncountable multitudes in Rev. 7 is a
blessed hope for us all and is UNDENIABLE,
folks (in a meaningful sense of
the word.)
If this is where
you were headed with all that rhetoric about Jews JD - you missed the mark
BIG TIME (emphasis)
Judgment
is for all who are lawless, disobedient, stiff necked, stubborn, beer
drinking, and rebellious.
Der-ahh !!
I should get three points for this
slam dunk !!!! Pastor Smithson
In your
dreams maybe.....