From: "David Miller" <
[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Judy wrote:
> We know that He was full of the Holy Spirit because
> it is written that "God giveth not the Spirit by measure
> unto him" (John 3:34)
This passage says that God GIVETH not the Spirit by measure, indicating that
it was a present thing, something that was happening at the time it was
being spoken. John 3:34 was speaking about a time AFTER John saw the Spirit
descending upon him, after his baptism. Therefore, this passage does not
settle the question concerning when Jesus was FULL of the Spirit... without
measure. Note also, that this perhaps should be looked at as a continual
thing, a process, rather than an event in history. The Spirit was
constantly flowing through him without measure.
Judy wrote:
> ... so my belief is that he was full of the Holy Spirit and
> pure/holy from birth which is how he could sit in the midst
> of the doctors at age 12, hear them, and ask such
> questions that all who heard him were astonished at his
> understanding and answers. (Luke 2:46,47).
Sitting with the doctors at age 12 and being found to be full of wisdom does
not settle the question of whether he was FULL of the Spirit either. I have
had this experience myself, with my pastors asking me, "how much do you read
the Bible... you must spend hours every day reading the Bible to know it by
heart so well." We need to be careful not to read more into what Luke is
saying than is warranted.
Well we see in Luke 1:15 that the angel told Zacharias that John the Baptist
would be full of the Holy Spirit from his mother's womb and John himself says
he is not fit to remove Jesus' sandals (John 3:11) so wouldn't it be safe to
assume that Jesus was also full of the Holy Spirit from his mother's womb,
especially since she concieved him by the ministry of the Holy Spirit - how
could he be anything else?.
Jesus certainly had the Spirit working in his life, but if part of what
Jesus came to do was to experience what we experience, then I think he also
experienced a time when he was not FULL.
My understanding is that in his humanity he was hungry and tired as we
are - well we know he was in the wilderness of temptation; but he was also
the recipient of every sin along with the curse it carries with it during those
three hours on the cross when everything was dark. Wouldn't this be enough?
From my consideration of Scripture, I think I am inclined to agree with Bill that
this happened at the time of his baptism. I tend to differ from him about whether or
not it would be proper to call him Jesus prior to his birth as a man, but I will
leave that discussion for another time.
Hmmm! Then why would God the Father fill John in his mother's womb and
make Jesus wait for 30yrs? Makes no sense to me David.
