[EMAIL PROTECTED] scripsit:
> If Phoenician is considered a glyphic variation of modern Hebrew, then
> it can also be considered a glyphic variation of modern Greek.
Greek is descended from the 22CWSA, but its alphabet is *not* the 22CWSA
structurally.
> it then follow that modern Greek should have been unified with modern
> Hebrew? (Directionality aside.)
(RTL archaic Greek can be handled with RLE.)
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