Den 2011-09-10 20:58, skrev "Jukka K. Korpela" <jkorp...@cs.tut.fi>:
> There is a deeper language-dependency. According to Oxford Style Manual, > one should not use the fi ligature in Turkish, as that would obscure the > distinction between normal i and dotless i (). This makes perfect sense > to me. It does not make perfect sense to me. Rather that: *If f followed by i is such that their font glyphs overlap (using normal letter spacing), making a ligature appropriate, makes that *font* unsuitable for Turkish, as such a ligature would obscure...*. If that is what you (and other who have said the same thing) meant, then fine. But taken at face value, your statement does not make (typographic) sense. /Kent K