Den 2011-09-10 20:58, skrev "Jukka K. Korpela" <jkorp...@cs.tut.fi>:
> There is a deeper language-dependency. According to Oxford Style Manual,
> one should not use the fi ligature in Turkish, as that would obscure the
> distinction between normal i and dotless i (). This makes perfect sense
> to me.
It does not make perfect sense to me. Rather that:
*If f followed by i is such that their font glyphs overlap (using
normal letter spacing), making a ligature appropriate, makes that
*font* unsuitable for Turkish, as such a ligature would obscure...*.
If that is what you (and other who have said the same thing) meant,
then fine. But taken at face value, your statement does not make
(typographic) sense.
/Kent K
