Has a suitably constructed (magnetic steel?) slip ring been shown not to
produce the effect?


On Fri, Aug 21, 2009 at 5:42 AM, Stephen A. Lawrence <sa...@pobox.com>wrote:

>
>
> Horace Heffner wrote:
>
> >>
> >> It's hard to see how AM balances; that's true.  However, take a look at
> >> the attached jpeg, which is a much simpler system:
> >>
> >> It's a set of ball bearings in a race, just as you've been using.  The
> >> balls are assumed to be NON-MAGNETIC.  In fact, the balls may be assumed
> >> to be FLAT DISKS, which will make this simpler in some ways (make 'em
> >> planetary gears if that's easier to picture).
> >>
> >> The blue "current loop" is just that:  it's a current loop, current
> >> going clockwise, which provides a magnetic field, which goes "up"
> >> outside the loop and "down" inside the loop, indicated with "o"s and
> >> "x"s.  If the "balls" are flat disks this is easy to do; if they're
> >> actually 3-d balls it's a little harder but the basic field arrangement
> >> is surely realizable.
> >>
> >> There is current through the balls, going radially out, as shown.
> >>
> >> Surely there is a TORQUE on each ball, just as in your "model" of the
> >> ball bearing motor.  This sort of thing is practical to realize; it
> >> strikes me as a simple variant on the homopolar motor but I haven't
> >> thought about the comparison a lot.
> >>
> >> So.... WHY IS ANGULAR MOMENTUM CONSERVED IN THIS CASE?
> >
> >
> > I think the answer is that there is a return current segment (or are
> > current segments) not shown that goes from the outside race to the
> > inside race.  If the sum of the ball currents is N*i = 5*i then the
> > return current is also exactly N*i.  The torques exactly cancel. What
> > you have are two independent circuits acting on each other, which is
> > well known not to violate COAM.
>
>
> But isn't the situation identical with the BB motor?
>
> You have a magnetic field within the bearing which has similar topology
> to the field provided by the current loop in my diagram.
>
> It's an ordinary magnetic field, and no matter what its cause, it must
> also have the usual properties of B-fields:  The field lines never end,
> they just form loops.
>
> And you've got current going all the way around -- there is a current
> return path somewhere, outside the bearing, which you haven't shown.
>
> Even if (part of) your return path goes through a second bearing at the
> other end of the motor, you're still in the realm of something which can
> be simulated with my little current loop -- you just need a second loop
> for the second bearing (with current going CCW in the second loop).  And
> when you try to think about what the fields must look like outside the
> two bearings in my "gedanken", you're also thinking about what the
> fields must look like outside the two bearings of a BB motor, because
> once again, the fields have roughly the same "shape".
>
> So, you may need to look to the *wires* bringing current to the motor,
> and their interaction with the B-field produced by the spinning ball
> bearings, to figure out where the "balancing" part of the angular
> momentum equation is.  And you may also need to look at the current
> flowing ALONG THE SHAFT, where the B field lines from the bearings are
> curving around, so that the current in the shaft is *not* parallel to
> the B field lines, and there will consequently be a Lorentz force on it.
>
>
>
> >
> >>
> >> I don't see it, off the top of my head.  But it surely is, and whatever
> >> the mechanism, the same thing may be at work in the ball bearing motor.
> >>
> >> For that matter COAM in the case of the homopolar motor is pretty hard
> >> to sort out, too!<horace-ball-bearing-motor-1.jpg>
> >
> > Best regards,
> >
> > Horace Heffner
> > http://www.mtaonline.net/~hheffner/<http://www.mtaonline.net/%7Ehheffner/>
> >
> >
> >
> >
>
>

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