opaqueice;175789 Wrote: > Well, I disagree. I'll give one more example which might be > instructive, and this will be my last comment on the subject. > > Suppose there's a component of EM noise at 100Hz. Imagine adding that > > > a) to the digital signal before the DAC > > b) to the analogue signal after the DAC. > > Is there a difference? Yes - in case a) a 1kHz test tone will have > sidebands at 900 and 1100KHz, as well as a component at 100. In case > b) the effect will be only to add a component at 100Hz. My point is > that both a) and b) will be present if the source of the noise is EMI, > but case b) will be much easier to hear (all else being equal) because > you can amplify it without any "background" (that is, music!). > > The only loophole I can see here is if the interference is for some > reason much stronger in the digital signal than in the analogue stage.
Most of what you just wrote is exactly what I have been trying to explain. When it comes to the "stronger" interference there is no way to compare them, as we don't know how strong their influences are at the "point of influence". And, as you say ourself, the actual result of the influence is totally different. (So "strength" is not really relevant.) -- P Floding ------------------------------------------------------------------------ P Floding's Profile: http://forums.slimdevices.com/member.php?userid=2932 View this thread: http://forums.slimdevices.com/showthread.php?t=32231 _______________________________________________ audiophiles mailing list audiophiles@lists.slimdevices.com http://lists.slimdevices.com/lists/listinfo/audiophiles
