opaqueice;175789 Wrote: > Well, I disagree. I'll give one more example which might be > instructive, and this will be my last comment on the subject. > > Suppose there's a component of EM noise at 100Hz. Imagine adding that > > > a) to the digital signal before the DAC > > b) to the analogue signal after the DAC. > > Is there a difference? Yes - in case a) a 1kHz test tone will have > sidebands at 900 and 1100KHz, as well as a component at 100. In case > b) the effect will be only to add a component at 100Hz. My point is > that both a) and b) will be present if the source of the noise is EMI, > but case b) will be much easier to hear (all else being equal) because > you can amplify it without any "background" (that is, music!). > > The only loophole I can see here is if the interference is for some > reason much stronger in the digital signal than in the analogue stage.
But...adding a 1kHz tone to (the analogue representation of) the digital signal wont create analogue noise in the DAC - it just makes it harder for the DAC to recover the bits... The only way to increase the noise floor out of the DAC is to chaneg the bits going in, or to induce noise in the analogue op stages of the DAC. The effect of EMI on digital and analogue circuits is completely different AFAIK, -- Phil Leigh ------------------------------------------------------------------------ Phil Leigh's Profile: http://forums.slimdevices.com/member.php?userid=85 View this thread: http://forums.slimdevices.com/showthread.php?t=32231 _______________________________________________ audiophiles mailing list audiophiles@lists.slimdevices.com http://lists.slimdevices.com/lists/listinfo/audiophiles
