andy74;228197 Wrote: > Objectively, if a 100 persons does not hear the difference in the test > of 50 trials. And there is one who does all 50 tests with 100% right > answers. This means that there is difference doesn't it. And it also > means that those 100 persons do not simply hear it. Theoretically, yes, but if there actually was a difference, it would be extremely unlikely that only one person out of 100 could hear it, and hear it every time. (That person would have to be a freak of nature to have hearing that much better than everyone else.) People like to make up hypothetical examples of extreme cases, but reality almost never happens that way.
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