opaqueice;231264 Wrote: > Take the difference between a 20 kHz sqaure wave and a (normalized > appropriately) 20 kHz sin wave and you get a series of higher frequency > sin waves starting at 60kHz. That's a result of basic Fourier analysis > (we don't even need to touch the 20th century for this), and (since we > can't hear above around 20kHz) it explains why if you DID go to the > trouble of producing a 20kHz square wave it would sound exactly like a > 20kHz sin wave. > > I'm not sure which part you don't agree with.
Who do you, opaqueice mean by "you". http://forums.slimdevices.com/showthread.php?t=38813 tries to bring some sense to this general discussion. As mentioned in the alternative thread, pass the square wave through the proper filter, you have a sine wave, which you can sample. And duh, when you reproduce it, you get a sine wave. If I could, I'd set follow-ups about sample theory, square waves, Fourier, Taylor, etc. to http://forums.slimdevices.com/showthread.php?t=38813 -- pfarrell Pat http://www.pfarrell.com/music/slimserver/slimsoftware.html ------------------------------------------------------------------------ pfarrell's Profile: http://forums.slimdevices.com/member.php?userid=200 View this thread: http://forums.slimdevices.com/showthread.php?t=38596 _______________________________________________ audiophiles mailing list audiophiles@lists.slimdevices.com http://lists.slimdevices.com/lists/listinfo/audiophiles