opaqueice;231264 Wrote: 
>  Take the difference between a 20 kHz sqaure wave and a (normalized
> appropriately) 20 kHz sin wave and you get a series of higher frequency
> sin waves starting at 60kHz.  That's a result of basic Fourier analysis
> (we don't even need to touch the 20th century for this), and (since we
> can't hear above around 20kHz) it explains why if you DID go to the
> trouble of producing a 20kHz square wave it would sound exactly like a
> 20kHz sin wave.
> 
> I'm not sure which part you don't agree with.

Who do you, opaqueice mean by "you".

http://forums.slimdevices.com/showthread.php?t=38813
tries to bring some sense to this general discussion.

As mentioned in the alternative thread, pass the square wave through
the proper filter, you have a sine wave, which you can sample. And duh,
when you reproduce it, you get a sine wave.

If I could, I'd set follow-ups about sample theory, square waves,
Fourier, Taylor, etc. to 

http://forums.slimdevices.com/showthread.php?t=38813


-- 
pfarrell

Pat                             
http://www.pfarrell.com/music/slimserver/slimsoftware.html
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