Hello everyone, a simple question:
Assume that you have two PC's that belong to different subnets and you
connect them to a 2924 and assign them to the same vlan.If the first PC
pings the second one, because of the fact that they belong to a
different subnet there has to be somewhere a router in order for the
packet to go from one subnet to the other despite of the fact that they
belong to the same vlan, correct?
Thanks for your time
alexs
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