Yes, the packets will have to go through a router because they are not in
the same subnet. However, PC1 sent a broadcast, PC2 would recieve it, which
would confuse the jee-himinny's out of Netbios.
----Original Message Follows----
From: cablelink <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Reply-To: cablelink <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Subject: vlans and subnets
Date: Tue, 12 Sep 2000 13:54:43 +0300
Hello everyone, a simple question:
Assume that you have two PC's that belong to different subnets and you
connect them to a 2924 and assign them to the same vlan.If the first PC
pings the second one, because of the fact that they belong to a
different subnet there has to be somewhere a router in order for the
packet to go from one subnet to the other despite of the fact that they
belong to the same vlan, correct?
Thanks for your time
alexs
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