Yes, sort of. You are correct that a router would be needed to communicate,
but your definition of the problem is incorrect. If they are in different
subnets, you should not be placing them in the same VLAN. By definition, a
VLAN is a separate subnet. In a switched environment, each subnet will have
its own VLAN and then a router would be used to route between VLAN/subnets.
> Hello everyone, a simple question:
>
> Assume that you have two PC's that belong to different subnets and you
> connect them to a 2924 and assign them to the same vlan.If the first PC
> pings the second one, because of the fact that they belong to a
> different subnet there has to be somewhere a router in order for the
> packet to go from one subnet to the other despite of the fact that they
> belong to the same vlan, correct?
> Thanks for your time
>
> alexs
>
> **NOTE: New CCNA/CCDA List has been formed. For more information go to
> http://www.groupstudy.com/list/Associates.html
> _________________________________
> UPDATED Posting Guidelines: http://www.groupstudy.com/list/guide.html
> FAQ, list archives, and subscription info: http://www.groupstudy.com
> Report misconduct and Nondisclosure violations to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
_______________________________________________________
Say Bye to Slow Internet!
http://www.home.com/xinbox/signup.html
**NOTE: New CCNA/CCDA List has been formed. For more information go to
http://www.groupstudy.com/list/Associates.html
_________________________________
UPDATED Posting Guidelines: http://www.groupstudy.com/list/guide.html
FAQ, list archives, and subscription info: http://www.groupstudy.com
Report misconduct and Nondisclosure violations to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
