That would be correct.
It would be the same as putting them both on a hub for that matter.
Scott
> Hello everyone, a simple question:
>
> Assume that you have two PC's that belong to different subnets and you
> connect them to a 2924 and assign them to the same vlan.If the first PC
> pings the second one, because of the fact that they belong to a
> different subnet there has to be somewhere a router in order for the
> packet to go from one subnet to the other despite of the fact that they
> belong to the same vlan, correct?
> Thanks for your time
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