Thanks a lot Priscilla. This is what I was looking for. I suppose my part 2 to the previous question would make more sense if I used live IPs like Scenario 3
Scenario 3 ========== ---int0-(R1)-int1 --------int0-(R2)-int1 --- Router 1 Int 0: 192.168.1.1 Int 1: 200.100.2.1 Router 2 Int 0: 200.100.2.2 Int 1: 192.168.1.1 So basically every router in the world would need to create a subnet? I suppose a company is on the same subnet as the ISP, then the ISP is on the same subnet as their teir 1 ISP then all the teir 1 ISPs are connected - between each AS using BGP. Is this right? Message Posted at: http://www.groupstudy.com/form/read.php?f=7&i=40786&t=40766 -------------------------------------------------- FAQ, list archives, and subscription info: http://www.groupstudy.com/list/cisco.html Report misconduct and Nondisclosure violations to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
