On 2012-09-24 12:06, Nick Sabalausky wrote:
No, because there's nothing typed (int) involved there. But you could do this:int a = 3; (int) b = a; a = b;
But you said: "They would just be implicitly convertible to non-tuple form *if* needed, and vice versa."To me that sounds like a tuple of one element of the type int would be implicitly convertible to an int. And, an int would be implicitly convertible to a tuple of one element.
-- /Jacob Carlborg
