In article <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>,
Dennis Roberts <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
>let's say that you do a simple (well executed) 2 group study ...
>treatment/control ... and, are interested in the mean difference ... and
>find that a simple t test shows a p value (with mean in favor of treatment)
>of .009
>while it generally seems to be held that such a p value would suggest that
>our null model is not likely to be correct (ie, some other alternative
>model might make more sense), does it say ANYthing more than that?
>specifically, does the p value in and of itself impute ANY information
>about the non null possibilities being in the direction favoring the
>treatment group?
>or, just that the null model is not very plausible
>bottom line: is there any value added information imparted from the p value
>other than a statement about the null?
Does it even state that? The posterior odds ratio for a
symmetric prior on the mean of a normal random variable
over that of the null is less than 4 for a p value of .05.
--
This address is for information only. I do not claim that these views
are those of the Statistics Department or of Purdue University.
Herman Rubin, Dept. of Statistics, Purdue Univ., West Lafayette IN47907-1399
[EMAIL PROTECTED] Phone: (765)494-6054 FAX: (765)494-0558
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