let's say that you do a simple (well executed) 2 group study ... treatment/control ... and, are interested in the mean difference ... and find that a simple t test shows a p value (with mean in favor of treatment) of .009
while it generally seems to be held that such a p value would suggest that our null model is not likely to be correct (ie, some other alternative model might make more sense), does it say ANYthing more than that? specifically, does the p value in and of itself impute ANY information about the non null possibilities being in the direction favoring the treatment group? or, just that the null model is not very plausible bottom line: is there any value added information imparted from the p value other than a statement about the null? _________________________________________________________ dennis roberts, educational psychology, penn state university 208 cedar, AC 8148632401, mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] http://roberts.ed.psu.edu/users/droberts/drober~1.htm ================================================================= Instructions for joining and leaving this list and remarks about the problem of INAPPROPRIATE MESSAGES are available at http://jse.stat.ncsu.edu/ =================================================================
