On Nov 25, 2008, at 9:43 AM, Markus Schulze wrote:
Dear Jonathan Lundell,
Greg argued that "every IRV election for public
office ever held in the United States ..."
Now you use Florida 2000 as a counterexample.
Do you see the problem?
Markus Schulze
No, I don't. You wrote,
Doesn't that mean that -- when we apply
your logic -- plurality voting always elects the
right winner?
How does a claim about IRV turn into a claim about plurality?
It seems to me that a plurality counterexample is indeed a legitimate
argument against a universal claim about plurality--to the extent that
that's the issue here.
If instead we're arguing about Greg's logic, I'm still not seeing how
his claim about "every IRV election" implies anything about what
plurality always does.
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