On 1/18/2015 9:38 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 15 Jan 2015, at 19:18, meekerdb wrote:

On 1/15/2015 3:04 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
It is the reason why I stopped, a long time ago, to qualify myself as an atheist. I realized that atheists believe to much in the christian God, paradoxically enough.

By your logic one cannot disbelieve in anything

?

I disbelieve in a number P which would be prime and such that all y with x > P would be composite numbers.

I disbelieve in triangular square. I can't conceive them.

I can conceive a personal god, but if it is literally the one of this or that text, I am skeptical, especially if endowed with positive attributes and even more so if it is claimed he gave normative rules.




because to do so you have to conceive of what it is your are failing to believe


Yes, a contradiction. I can conceive that I *was* wrong or inconsistent. Or that I am or will be.



(otherwise you don't know what you're talking about); and therefore you believe in it because you conceive it.

Not really, because even if I can conceive it, I can conceive also that it 
might not exist.

Then you need to stop saying atheist who conceive that the God of theism is unlikely to exist are really supporting the Christian god.

Brent


My belief in God is trivial. All machine introspecting are confronted to it, and from outside, in the metatheory, we can see that they can confused it (correctly, or not) with truth.

The problem of the aristotelians is that they often take for granted the physical reality, which is comprehensible when doing physics, but when doing theology, the physical universe is an hypothesis, and as such, there are no evidences for it.

That's fine, but it has no bearing on the relation of atheism to Christianity. And it's not at all clear what Aristotle meant by physical reality (I doubt he even used that term). Aristotle postulated the existence of substances which filled all space and had certain teleological tendencies. The latter fit well with Christian eschatology and so his ideas were taught in the ecclesiastical schools. Aristotle didn't engage in experimental science; he was as much driven by "pure" thought as Plato. As JKC says he was a very bad physicist - and not "just for his time"; he could have followed the Ionian school which did measure as well as reason.

Brent

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