On 6/06/2016 7:39 am, Brent Meeker wrote:
On 6/4/2016 11:39 PM, Bruce Kellett wrote:

I think you are trying to move the goal posts here.... The original argument about non-locality in MWI was the contention by people like Price, Tipler, Brown, and Christian that Bell made certain assumptions that were not true in the Everetttian approach. Their conclusion was that his theorem was not applicable to the MWI, rendering the argument that local hidden variables were ruled out inapplicable in that case. (Though Joy Christian tries to go further and argues that Bell made a trivial mistake that rendered his 'theorem' invalid in all interpretations.) I have rebutted the various claims of these papers in other posts: Bell does not depend on such ill-defined things as counterfactual definiteness, and certainly does not assume that experiments have only single outcomes. My conclusion is that Bell's theorem is valid universally -- merely changing the interpretation does not alter that, and thus non-locality has been shown to be intrinsic to quantum mechanics.

You are now attempting to change the argument: you appear now to accept that individual experimenters will see the quantum world as non-local, but that this is merely an observer-dependent effect, arising from self-location in the multiverse: another instance of FPI. I think that you have to do a bit more work on this changed approach to non-locality: I think you will find that the argument does not work like the FPI account of apparent indeterminism in a deterministic universe. Bell's theorem applies to every set of correlations obtained by experimenters in every branch of the universal wave function -- there is no 'external' perspective from which Bell' s theorem does not apply. If there were, there would have to be a local account available from the 'bird' perspective, and there is no such account. If you claim that there is, then the onus is on you to produce that account. The singlet state

   |psi> = (|+>|-> - |->|+>)/sqrt(2)

is the wave function from the 'bird' perspective, and particles 1 and 2 are separated in the 'bird' perspective as much as in any 'frog' perspective. Going outside the perspective of the individual experimenters does not actually gain you anything in this instance.

I don't think anyone (except Joy Christian) argues that Bell's theorem does not apply in MWI - I certainly don't think that.

That was the central argument that sought to establish that MWI was local -- MWIers claim that Bell assumed something in his proof that does not hold in MWI, so the theorem does not apply to MWI. The conclusion they want to draw is that since the Bell inequalities are inapplicable in MWI, observation of violations of the inequalities can not be interpreted as evidence of non-locality. I think that argument is dead -- Bell did not assume counterfactual definiteness, and even if he did, that would not have affected his proof. Also, he did not need to assume that experiments had only one result -- the theorem applies to correlations between decohered experimental results, and thus applies equally to all branches of the wave function (if you want to think in MWI terms).

But I think that "which universe" is a non-local hidden variable in MWI and so explains the correlation without violating Bell's theorem.

I have difficulty in working out what this means. The quantum correlations do not violate Bell's theorem, Bell's theorem simply states that the quantum correlations cannot be explained by any local interactions, visible or hidden. The question of "which universe" in the many worlds approach might be considered to be a non-local hidden variable, but that does not take you any distance towards an explanation of the correlations. As you point out elsewhere, all that is required is the wave function itself -- the wave function predicts the observed correlations, and because it refers to both of the separated particles simultaneously, it is, in itself, non-local. No further explanation is required.

Bruce

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