Re: [Finale] Ties ans slurs

[Johannes Gebauer]

I just looked up a couple of volumes from the Mozart complete edition at 
random, and they consistently start the slur on the second note of two 
tied over notes. I think the problem is that both Read and Ross follow a 
early 20th century tradition. From that point of view they are both 
correct. However, things have changed, especially for critical editions, 
and you will probably find that the Mozart complete edition approach is 
now used in pretty much all Bärenreiter, Henle, UE, and probably also 
recent Schott, Eulenburg, Peters and even Breitkopf editions.

To be honest, for me a slur covering the whole tie actually looks 
old-fashioned, but 90% of my playing is from either 18th century or 
modern critical editions.

However, depending on the context both ways are valid and correct.
Johannes
Jari Williamsson wrote:
d. collins wrote:
I have two tied notes followed by a third note: should the slur ending 
on the third note start on the first or the second of the tied notes.

FWIW, both Garner Read (page 267) and Kurt Ross (page 141) mentions a 
tie not covered completely by the slur as "incorrect". But of course 
this doesn't deal with historical editions (just like ties over barlines 
are now considered to be the "correct" notation, compared to putting 
dots after the barline or notes directly on the barline).

Best regards,
Jari Williamsson
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