Johannes
d. collins wrote:
Thanks to all for the valuable advice, and in particular to Johannes for explaining both options in this situation.
The source (17th century) of this vocal piece only uses one tie/slur in the text itself, to indicate that the syllable is held over all three notes (one whole note and two quarter notes, with the same pitch for the first two notes). I think the slur starting on the second note looks better, and since there is no ambiguity, this is what I'm tempted to do.
Thanks again,
Dennis
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