Johannes
d. collins wrote:
Jari Williamsson écrit:
FWIW, both Garner Read (page 267) and Kurt Ross (page 141) mentions a tie not covered completely by the slur as "incorrect". But of course this doesn't deal with historical editions (just like ties over barlines are now considered to be the "correct" notation, compared to putting dots after the barline or notes directly on the barline).
I did check Read and Ross before posting my question, and the pages you refer in both books mention only the case of a slur finishing on a tied note, and not my case, where the tied note comes at the beginning.
Dennis
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