Mahinda,

As I understand it, you have 3 groups (Controls, P1, and P4) in your
analysis and have done three contrasts:
(1) P1vP4 --> no differences
(2) P1vControls --> no differences
(3) P4vControls --> significant differences

Your first question about the difference in the analysis --> three
contrasts are all testing different relationships and thus will give
you different results

Your second question about whether these are valid --> all three
contrasts are valid

HOWEVER, from your wording, it seems that your interpretation is
wrong. P1 and P4 are not different. The only test that you can do to
test if P1 and P4 are different is to test them directly. Observing
that P1vControls had no differences and P4vControls had a difference
does provide any evidence that P1 and P4 are different.

Here is a quick example. The threshold we will use is 3. P1vControls
is 2.99. P4vControls is 3.01. There is virtually no difference in P1
and P4, even though only one group is different than controls. While
this is an extreme example, it holds that the lack of a difference in
one group, but not the other does not mean the groups are different.
Here is a paper on the issue and its prevalence in Neuroscience:
Nieuwenhuis et al. (2011). Erroneous analysis of interactions in
neuroscience: a problem of significance. Nature Neuroscience.

I suspect that with larger samples, that you should be able to see the
difference, if the difference exists. You might consider the contrast
[0 1.5 .5 -.5 -1.5] across all 5 groups showing a linear effect of
disease severity. The first column being controls.

Hope this helps.

Best Regards, Donald McLaren
=================
D.G. McLaren, Ph.D.
Research Fellow, Department of Neurology, Massachusetts General Hospital and
Harvard Medical School
Postdoctoral Research Fellow, GRECC, Bedford VA
Website: http://www.martinos.org/~mclaren
Office: (773) 406-2464
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On Mon, Nov 26, 2012 at 11:59 AM, Mahinda Yogarajah <y.mahi...@gmail.com> wrote:
> Hi Doug and Donald,
>
> Again many thanks for the advice. With regard to the analysis described 
> previously - I have n=21 in my control group while P1=4 patients, P2=7 
> patients, P3=3 patients and P4=5 patients.  Given that i have small numbers I 
> elected to compare only 2 patient groups (p1 and p4) rather than all 4.
>
> My aim was to show that P4 patients (higher level of endogenous factor) are 
> more affected (eg smaller area and greater thickness-age decline compared to 
> controls) than P1.   Given that as Donald points out that (c-p1) - (c-p4) is 
> like comparing p1 and p4 directly, I did the latter but there is nothing 
> significant.
>
> However when i compare p1 to controls and then p4 to controls separately i 
> see nothing signficant in the p1 analysis but significant results in the p4 
> analysis - this makes sense as the p4 gp are more affected than the very mild 
> p1 gp.
>
> My questions are:
>
> 1) why the difference in results between the two analyses (? due to larger 
> overall group in second analysis)
> 2) is the latter analysis valid ?
>
> Thanks for your help.
>
> Mahinda
>
>

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